NCLEX-PN
PN NCLEX Practice Exam Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse assesses a client who has been re-admitted to the psychiatric inpatient unit for schizophrenia. His symptoms have been managed for several months with fluphenazine (Prolixin). Which should be a focus of the first assessment?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Medication compliance. Ensuring adherence to fluphenazine is critical for symptom management in schizophrenia.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who had a forceps-assisted vaginal birth and is reporting severe vaginal pain and fullness. The nurse notes the fundus is firm and midline with a scant amount of lochia rubra. The client is most likely experiencing
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Severe vaginal pain and fullness with a firm fundus and scant lochia suggest a vaginal hematoma (
B). Uterine atony (
A) causes heavy bleeding, cervical lacerations (
C) cause bleeding, and uterine inversion (
D) involves a displaced fundus.
Question 3 of 5
The health care provider (HCP) explains the risks and benefits of a procedure to the client through an interpreter. The HCP leaves after asking the nurse to witness the client's signature on the consent. The interpreter and client now have a lengthy discussion in the foreign language. The nurse should take which action at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Asking the interpreter to explain the discussion (
A) ensures the nurse understands any concerns or clarifications, verifying informed consent. Gestures (
B) are unreliable, the interpreter witnessing (
C) is inappropriate, and noting interpreter use (
D) is insufficient without understanding the discussion.
Question 4 of 5
A client is admitted for removal of a goiter. Which nursing intervention should receive priority during the post-operative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A goiter is hyperplasia of the thyroid gland. Removal of a goiter can result in laryngeal spasms and airway occlusion. The other answers are lesser in priority.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a hospice client with advanced heart failure who is having trouble breathing. Which comfort intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed (
C) is the first non-pharmacologic intervention to ease breathing in heart failure by reducing pulmonary congestion. Albuterol (
A) is for bronchospasm, imagery (
B) is secondary, and morphine (
D) is for severe distress.