Hematology NCLEX Practice Questions | Nurselytic

Questions 32

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Hematology NCLEX Practice Questions Questions

Question 1 of 5

The nurse has identified the concept of cellular deviation for a client diagnosed with chronic myelogenous leukemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,C,D

Rationale: Screening visitors (
A), avoiding fresh produce (
C), and monitoring WBCs (
D) reduce infection risk in CML. Vitals (
B) are routine, droplet isolation (E) is excessive, and daily bone marrow (F) is impractical.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute myeloid leukemia. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Left upper quadrant pain (
D) suggests splenic rupture, a life-threatening AML complication. Vitals (
A) are stable, gum hyperplasia (
B) is expected, and fatigue (
C) is common.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse writes the problem of 'grieving' for a client diagnosed with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma. Which collaborative intervention should be included in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Grieving requires collaborative support; ACS Dialogue group (
C) provides peer support. Talking (
A) is independent, outings (
B) are nonspecific, and chaplain visits (
D) are spiritual, not primary.

Question 4 of 5

The client receiving hospice care has cancer pain and requires treatment with a co-analgesic for pain control. Which medication should the nurse request an HCP to prescribe because it gives the best pain-relieving response when given with opioids?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Promethazine (Phenergan) is given with pain medications, but it treats nausea and vomiting, not pain. Gabapentin (Neurontin) is often administered with opioid pain medications because of its efficacy in relieving neuropathic pain and its limited adverse effects. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is not a co-analgesic but an antihistamine. Droperidol (Inapsine) is not a co-analgesic but an antiemetic to control nausea and vomiting.

Question 5 of 5

A toddler has been treated for sickle cell crisis. The crisis subsides, and the child improves. Which statement is essential for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Fevers can cause dehydration and trigger sickling, leading to a crisis, making it essential to notify the physician immediately.

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