NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Question of The Day Questions
Question 1 of 5
After experiencing a left frontal lobe CVA, a fifty-five-year-old man is being monitored by a nurse. The patient's family is not present in the room. What should the nurse observe most closely for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to watch for changes in emotion and behavior. The frontal lobe, particularly the left side, is responsible for regulating behavior and emotions.
Therefore, following a left frontal lobe CVA, monitoring for alterations in emotion and behavior is crucial.
Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because loss of hearing, appetite and vision deficits, and changes in facial muscle control are not directly associated with a left frontal lobe CVA.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse overhears two nursing students talking about a client in the cafeteria. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the students that discussing a client in a public area like the cafeteria violates HIPAA regulations. This is important to educate the students about patient confidentiality and the consequences of breaching it. Reporting to the nursing supervisor or faculty should come after addressing the students directly. Writing up a variance report is not the immediate action needed in this situation, as educating the students about their mistake should be the priority. It is essential to address the issue at the source by educating the students first rather than escalating the matter to supervisors or faculty immediately.
Question 3 of 5
For which adverse effect of the block does the postpartum nurse monitor the woman after receiving a subarachnoid (spinal) block for a cesarean delivery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Headache.' Postdural headache is a common adverse effect associated with a subarachnoid block due to cerebrospinal fluid leakage at the site of dural puncture. This headache worsens when the woman is upright and may improve when she lies flat.
To manage this headache, bed rest and adequate hydration are recommended. Pruritus, vomiting, and hypertension are not typically associated with subarachnoid blocks. Pruritus, nausea, and vomiting are more commonly linked to the use of intrathecal opioids.
Question 4 of 5
Which client should be seen first by the Emergency Department nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The priority in the emergency department is to assess and manage clients based on the severity of their condition. In this scenario, the three-year-old with wheezes in the right lower lobe should be seen first because respiratory distress takes precedence over other conditions. Wheezing indicates potential airway compromise, which requires immediate attention to ensure adequate oxygenation. The other options are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's airway and breathing. A femur fracture, fever, or a dislodged gastrostomy tube can be addressed after ensuring the child with respiratory distress is stable.
Question 5 of 5
What type of diet is appropriate for a client with chronic cirrhosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct diet for a client with chronic cirrhosis is high calorie, low protein. Cirrhosis can lead to impaired protein metabolism, making it essential to limit protein intake. High-calorie foods help meet the client's energy needs.
Choice B (High protein, high calorie) is incorrect because high protein intake can worsen hepatic encephalopathy.
Choice C (Low fat, low sodium) is not the most appropriate diet for cirrhosis as the focus should be on calories and protein.
Choice D (High calorie, low sodium) does not address the need to restrict protein intake, which is crucial in cirrhosis.