NCLEX-PN
Practice NCLEX PN Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The perinatal nurse is reviewing telephone messages from clients. The nurse should first telephone the client who is at
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ibuprofen at 32 weeks gestation is concerning due to risks of premature ductus arteriosus closure and oligohydramnios, requiring immediate follow-up. Mild diarrhea and dark urine with metronidazole are less urgent, and acetaminophen is safe.
Question 2 of 5
A client comes to the emergency department for the second time with shortness of breath and substernal pressure that radiates to the jaw. The nurse understands that angina pectoris may be precipitated by which of these factors? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,C,E
Rationale: Angina can be triggered by amphetamines increasing cardiac demand, smoking causing vasoconstriction, cold exposure inducing vasospasm, and sexual intercourse raising heart rate. Deep sleep typically reduces demand.
Question 3 of 5
A client comes to the emergency department with diplopia and recent onset of nausea. Which statement by the client would indicate to the nurse that this is an emergency?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A severe headache described as the worst ever with diplopia and nausea suggests a possible subarachnoid hemorrhage or aneurysm, requiring emergency evaluation. Other statements (A, B,
C) are less specific.
Extract:
Laboratory reference ranges
Hemoglobin
Male: 14.0–18.0 g/dL
(140–180 g/L)
Female: 12.0–16.0 g/dL
(120–160 g/L)
WBC
5000–10,000/mm³
(5–10 × 10⁹/L)
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is collecting data from a client with acute diverticulitis. Which of the following findings would be essential to follow up?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pain progressing to the left upper quadrant in diverticulitis is concerning for complications like perforation or abscess, requiring follow-up. Mild anemia and flexed positioning are common, and a moderately elevated WBC is expected in acute inflammation.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
A young adult has been diagnosed with Type 1 diabetes mellitus. The client asks how his condition differs from that of his grandmother who has Type 2 diabetes mellitus. What should the nurse include when replying?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Type 1 diabetes involves autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, causing insulin deficiency; Type 2 involves insulin resistance. Insulin may be used in Type 2, and diet or progression are not defining factors.