NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Prep Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
During a home visit, the community health nurse observes bruises in various stages of healing on the extremities and torso of an elderly client. The client explains that the bruises are from bumping into furniture and the well in the wheelchair. What is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Multiple bruises in various stages raise suspicion for elder abuse, requiring reporting to the HCP for investigation. Further questioning may cause distress, and hygiene/nutrition assessments are secondary. Discussing with family risks alerting potential abusers.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following instructions should be given to a client regarding testicular self-exam?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Testicular self-examination (TSE) is recommended monthly, not bimonthly or yearly, and is best performed during or after a warm shower or bath when the scrotum is relaxed, making it easier to detect abnormalities. Transillumination is a medical procedure, not part of TSE.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing a 4 year-old for possible developmental dysplasia of the right hip. Which finding would the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Characteristic limp. Developmental dysplasia produces a characteristic limp in children who are walking, indicating hip joint instability.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse evaluating a 52-year-old diabetic male client's therapeutic response to rosuvastatin would notice changes in which laboratory values? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: Rosuvastatin, a statin, is expected to lower LDL cholesterol, total cholesterol, and triglycerides, indicating therapeutic response. An increase in alanine aminotransferase suggests liver stress, which is a side effect to monitor, not a therapeutic goal. A decrease in HDL cholesterol is undesirable, as statins typically maintain or increase HDL.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is caring for a client who had a vaginal birth 2 hours ago. The nurse notes that the client's perineal pad is saturated with blood 20 minutes after placing a new pad. The client's fundus is boggy, palpable above the level of the umbilicus, and deviated to the right. Which intervention should the nurse perform first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A boggy, deviated fundus and heavy bleeding suggest uterine atony and possible bladder distension preventing uterine contraction. Assisting to void relieves bladder pressure, promoting uterine involution. Oxytocin follows if bleeding persists.