Questions 150

NCLEX-RN

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Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of liver failure is prescribed lactulose (Cephulac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Lactulose reduces ammonia levels by promoting its excretion in hepatic encephalopathy.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer (Renagel). The nurse should explain that this medication works by:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sevelamer binds phosphate in the gut, reducing serum phosphate levels in chronic kidney disease.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is teaching a 17-year-old girl who has a severe gonorrheal infection. The nurse realizes that the girl needs further teaching when she states:

Correct Answer: A,B

Rationale: Gonorrhea does not confer immunity, and partners require treatment to prevent reinfection. Potential infertility is a correct understanding, but believing protection eliminates all problems is overly optimistic.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a fracture of a long bone. Which of the following assessments would be the earliest symptom of a fat embolism?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Respiratory distress is the earliest symptom of fat embolism syndrome, as emboli obstruct pulmonary circulation, leading to hypoxia.

Question 5 of 5

A client is prescribed lansoprazole for the chronic management of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. The nurse determines that the client best understands this disorder and the medication regimen when the client reports taking which product for pain?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome is a hypersecretory condition of the stomach. The client should take acetaminophen for pain relief. The client should not take medications that irritate the stomach lining. Irritants would include aspirin and nonsteroidal antiinflammatory medications (naprosyn and ibuprofen).

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