NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is taking methylphenidate sustained-release tablets once daily for attention deficit disorder. The medication peaks in 4 to 7 hours and has a duration of 12 hours. At which time should the nurse instruct the client to take the prescribed dose of methylphenidate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Sustained-release methylphenidate (Ritalin) should be taken in the morning to avoid sleep interference.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing the child's ear with an otoscope prior to administering medications to treat persistent otitis media. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: This shows otitis media characterized by a bulging contour to the tympanic membrane, unclear ossicular landmarks, and yellowish middle ear effusion. B: This shows a perforated tympanic membrane, not otitis media. C: This shows a normal left ear tympanic membrane. The ossicular landmarks can be identified through the tympanic membrane. The nurse would not expect to see a normal tympanic membrane when the child has persistent otitis media. D: This shows the presence of a foreign body in the ear canal.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse administers risperidone to the client experiencing hallucinations. Which physiological disorder should the nurse assess for considering the risk of developing this disorder as a side effect of risperidone?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Risperidone (Risperdal) increases the risk of diabetes, especially in the first few months of therapy.
Question 4 of 5
A client is taking phenelzine (Nardil), and their spouse would like to bring lunch from home. Which of the following is most appropriate for the client to eat?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client taking an MAO Inhibitor, such as phenelzine (Nardil), should avoid tyramine-rich foods, which includes avocados, bananas, and salami.
Question 5 of 5
The new nurse asks the experienced nurse why the first dose of the MMR vaccine is normally given at 12 to 15 months of age and not earlier, except with international travel. Which explanation by the experienced nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The second dose of the MMR vaccine can be given earlier, provided that at least 4 weeks has elapsed since the first dose. However, a second dose is usually not given earlier because sufficient immunity is usually present. B: The chance of developing only measles is greater if the vaccine is given at a younger age because the vaccine may neutralize the passive antibodies. C: The MMR provides active (not passive) immunity. D: Because the MMR vaccine is a live virus, a person develops a mild form of the diseases after administration, stimulating the body to develop immunity. The passively acquired antibodies to measles can interfere with the child's immune response to the vaccine, and no immunity may result.