NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reviewing information for the 6-month-old who is being given ranitidine. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of ranitidine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: An HR of 110 bpm is normal for a 6-month-old; the range is 80-170 bpm. B: Fever (temperature of 102.7°F) is not an adverse effect of ranitidine. C: Ranitidine is indicated for GERD; spitting up after feedings should improve. If not, then the medication dose may be too low or the medication itself ineffective. Spitting up is not a side effect. D: The nurse should identify that a hard, pebble-like bowel movement every 2 days demonstrates constipation; constipation is an adverse effect of ranitidine (Zantac).
Question 2 of 5
The nurse receives the HCP order to start TPN for the client who has a PICC. Into which type of catheter illustrated should the nurse plan to administer the TPN?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Illustration A is a central line that is percutaneously inserted into the jugular or subclavian vein and terminates in the central circulation. These are intended for short-term venous access. B: Illustration B is a PICC, which is inserted into the arm and terminates in the central circulation. A PICC is used when medications or solutions are too caustic to be peripherally administered or when therapy lasts more than 2 weeks. C: Illustration C is a tunneled catheter inserted into the upper chest wall and threaded through the cephalic vein; it terminates in the central circulation. D: Illustration D is an intra-aortic balloon pump catheter that is inserted into the femoral artery and positioned in the descending aortic arch. The balloon on the end inflates during diastole. It is not used for medication or fluid administration.
Question 3 of 5
While the nurse is completing the assessment of the child with Reye's syndrome, the parent states that multiple OTC medications were given before hospitalization to treat the child's influenza symptoms. Which medication stated by the parent is most important for the nurse to report to the HCP?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Acetaminophen (Tylenol) is an aspirin-free analgesic and antipyretic. B: Although the etiology of Reye's syndrome is unknown, the condition typically occurs after a viral illness, such as influenza, and is associated with aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) use during the illness. Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol) contains aspirin. C: Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed) is an allergy and/or cold remedy used for nasal drying and decongestion. This does not contain aspirin. D: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine. This does not contain aspirin.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is initiating an IV infusion of lactated Ringer's (LR) for the client in shock. What is the purpose of LR for this client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: LR is an isotonic crystalloid solution containing multiple electrolytes in approximately the same concentration as plasma. It enters the cells from the blood, provides fluids, and increases urinary output. B: A hypertonic solution draws fluid from the cells into the vascular compartment; LR is isotonic. C: LR alone does not contain dextrose. Formulations with dextrose are available. D: Magnesium is not a component of LR.
Question 5 of 5
The adolescent, who is receiving morphine sulfate via PCA, has itching. Which medication listed on the client's MAR should the nurse plan to administer to relieve the itching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Diazepam (Valium) acts on the CNS to produce sedation, hypnosis, skeletal muscle relaxation, and anticonvulsant activity. B: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine that blocks histamine release by competing for the histamine receptors. C: Naloxone (Narcan) is a narcotic antagonist that reverses the effects of opiates. D: Butenafine (Mentax) is an antifungal antibiotic used to treat tinea pedis, tinea corporis, and tinea cruris.