Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023 - Nurselytic

Questions 63

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Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023 Questions

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Question 1 of 5

During a stress test, a patient complains of severe chest pain. Which of the following medications is the most appropriate to relieve this discomfort?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate medication to relieve severe ischemic chest pain during a stress test is Procardia. Procardia, a calcium channel blocker, is effective in quickly alleviating chest pain by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. Aspirin, although important for antiplatelet effects, is not the best choice for immediate relief of severe chest pain. Diazoxide is a vasodilator used in hypertensive emergencies, not for acute chest pain. Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure, not for chest pain relief.

Question 2 of 5

Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that can present after 20 weeks gestation. It is characterized by symptoms like edema, hypertension, and proteinuria, which can progress to conditions like pre-eclampsia and eclampsia. The best approach for a client with advanced PIH is rest, and home provides the most suitable environment for it. Hospitalization is not typically necessary for PIH unless there are severe complications. Medication alone is not the primary intervention for PIH; management often involves monitoring, rest, and close medical supervision.
Therefore, advising bedrest at home is the most appropriate response to help manage PIH symptoms and prevent further complications, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. The other options, like hospitalization for observation, emphasizing the danger of the signs without providing guidance, or assuming medication as the primary solution, are not in line with the standard management approach for PIH.

Question 3 of 5

Metformin (Glucophage) is administered to clients with type II diabetes mellitus. Metformin is an example of:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Metformin is classified as an antihyperglycemic agent because it works by reducing hepatic glucose output and decreasing glucose absorption from the gut, thereby preventing hyperglycemia.
Choice B, a hypoglycemic agent, is incorrect as hypoglycemic agents stimulate insulin production, which is not the mechanism of action of metformin.
Choice C, an insulin analogue, is incorrect as metformin is not a type of insulin but a distinct medication.
Choice D, a pancreatic alpha cell stimulant, is incorrect as metformin does not stimulate any pancreatic cells, but rather acts on the liver and gut to lower blood sugar levels.

Question 4 of 5

A nurse reviewed the arterial blood gas reading of a 25-year-old male. The nurse should be able to conclude the patient is experiencing which of the following conditions?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is respiratory alkalosis. In respiratory alkalosis, there is an elevated pH and low carbon dioxide levels (PaCO2 < 35 mmHg). In the given arterial blood gas reading, the patient's pH is 7.41 (within normal range), PaCO2 is 29 mmHg (below normal range), indicating respiratory alkalosis. The bicarbonate level is normal (25 mEq/l), ruling out metabolic acidosis or alkalosis. The low PaO2 (54 mmHg) may indicate hypoxemia, but it is not directly related to the acid-base disorder being assessed. Metabolic acidosis (choice
A) is characterized by low pH and low bicarbonate levels, which are not present in this case. Respiratory acidosis (choice
B) is indicated by low pH and high PaCO2 levels, which also do not match the provided data. Metabolic alkalosis (choice
C) is defined by high pH and high bicarbonate levels, which are not seen in this scenario.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a patient in the step-down unit. The patient has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following is not a sign of increased intracranial pressure?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Increased pupil size bilaterally.' When assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure, bilateral pupil dilation is not typically associated with this condition. Instead, unilateral pupil changes, especially one pupil becoming dilated or non-reactive while the other remains normal, are indicative of increased ICP. Bradycardia, a change in level of consciousness (LO
C), and vomiting are commonly seen in patients with increased intracranial pressure due to the brain's response to the rising pressure.
Therefore, the presence of bilateral pupil dilation goes against the typical pattern observed in patients with increased intracranial pressure.

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