NCLEX-PN
Quizlet NCLEX PN 2023 Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A patient has been diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which of the following is not a clinical sign of diabetes mellitus?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Polyphagia, polyuria, and metabolic acidosis are common clinical signs of diabetes mellitus. Polyphagia refers to excessive hunger, polyuria is excessive urination, and metabolic acidosis can occur due to poorly controlled diabetes. Lower extremity edema, on the other hand, is not a typical clinical sign of diabetes mellitus. Edema in the lower extremities is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease rather than diabetes mellitus.
Question 2 of 5
The test used to differentiate sickle cell trait from sickle cell disease is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct test to differentiate between sickle cell trait and sickle cell disease is hemoglobin electrophoresis. This test separates different types of hemoglobin based on their electrical charge, allowing for the identification of specific hemoglobin variants like HbS in sickle cell disease. Sickle cell preparation and Sickledex are not specific tests for this differentiation. While a peripheral smear can show sickle cells, it does not provide a definitive differentiation between the trait and the disease as it doesn't identify the specific hemoglobin variant present.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare professional is reviewing a patient's serum glucose levels. Which of the following scenarios would indicate abnormal serum glucose values for a 30-year-old male?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 55 mg/dL. The standard range for serum glucose levels is typically 60-115 mg/dL. A serum glucose level of 55 mg/dL falls below this range, indicating hypoglycemia. Options A, C, and D are within the standard range for serum glucose levels and would not be considered abnormal for a 30-year-old male.
Question 4 of 5
In Parkinson's disease, a client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is known as:
Correct Answer: C.
Rationale: In Parkinson's disease, the client's difficulty in performing voluntary movements is termed dyskinesia. Dyskinesia refers to the impairment of the ability to execute voluntary muscle movements. Akinesia, on the other hand, refers to the absence or lack of voluntary movement. Chorea is characterized by involuntary, rapid, irregular movements. Dystonia involves sustained muscle contractions resulting in abnormal postures or twisting movements.
Therefore, dyskinesia is the specific term used for the described difficulty in Parkinson's disease.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has fallen off a bicycle and fractured the head of the proximal fibula. A cast was placed on the patient's lower extremity. Which of the following is the most probable result of the fall?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is peroneal nerve injury. The head of the proximal fibula is in close proximity to the peroneal nerve, making it susceptible to injury when there is a fracture. The peroneal nerve runs along the fibula and can be affected by trauma to this area.
Choice B, tibial nerve injury, is incorrect as the fracture site is closer to the peroneal nerve, not the tibial nerve.
Choice C, sciatic nerve injury, is incorrect as the injury is more localized to the fibular head area where the peroneal nerve is affected.
Choice D, femoral nerve injury, is incorrect as the femoral nerve is not immediately adjacent to the proximal fibula and is not typically affected by this type of injury.