NCLEX-PN
Pharmacology NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 17-year-old client has been recently diagnosed as having diabetes mellitus Type 1. Insulin is prescribed. The client asks why insulin can't be taken by mouth. What is the best answer for the nurse to give?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Insulin is a protein destroyed by gastric enzymes, requiring injection for effective delivery.
Question 2 of 5
The client has the following arterial blood gases: pH 7.19, Paco2 33, Pao2 95, and HCO3 19. Which medication would the nurse prepare to administer based on the results?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3) requires sodium bicarbonate to correct pH. Oxygen, epinephrine, or antacids are inappropriate.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is administering an intravenous vesicant chemotherapeutic agent to a client. Which assessment would require the nurse's immediate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Complaints of pain at site of infusion. A vesicant is a chemotherapeutic agent capable of causing blistering of tissues and possible tissue necrosis if there is extravasation. These agents are irritants which cause pain along the vein wall, with or without inflammation.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is hanging 1,000 mL of IV fluids to run for eight (8) hours. The intravenous tubing is a microdrip. How many gtt/min should the IV rate be set?
Correct Answer: 15
Rationale: Microdrip is 60 gtt/mL. Rate: (1,000 mL / 8 hr) x (60 gtt/mL / 60 min) = 125 mL/hr x 1 gtt/min = 15.625 gtt/min, rounded to 15 gtt/min.
Question 5 of 5
The client is complaining of nausea, and the nurse administers the antiemetic promethazine (Phenergan), IVP. Which intervention has priority for this client after administering this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Promethazine causes sedation and orthostatic hypotension; instructing to call before ambulating prevents falls, the priority post-IVP.