NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Trainer Test 8 Questions
Extract:
A disoriented male client reveals that the client has a self-care deficit (feeding).
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following would indicate to the nurse that the client has made a positive response to the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Strategy: Determine the outcome of each answer choice. (1) would not be realistic in a client who is disoriented (2) would not be realistic in a client who is disoriented (3) would not be realistic in a client who is disoriented (4) correct-disoriented client who is not able to be an independent self-care agent will need cuing from the nurse to accomplish self-feeding
Extract:
Question 2 of 5
Which instruction should be given to the client taking alendronate sodium (Fosamax)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alendronate sodium is a drug used to treat osteoporosis. The drug causes gastric reflux, so the client should remain upright for 30 minutes after taking it and take it with only water. Taking it before arising or with estrogen is incorrect, and forcing fluids is not necessary.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a long leg cast on his right leg. The nurse notes that the right foot is pale and cool to the touch, and the client continues to complain of pain even though an analgesic was administered 45 minutes ago. What is the FIRST action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Pale, cool skin and persistent pain suggest compartment syndrome, requiring immediate physician notification. Options A, B, and C are unsafe.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report immediately?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypokalemia (3.0 mEq/L) from furosemide increases arrhythmia risk in heart failure. Options B, C, and D are normal.
Question 5 of 5
A client on chemotherapy has a WBC count of 1,200/mm^3. Which of the following nursing actions should the nurse take FIRST?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A WBC count of 1,200/mm^3 indicates severe neutropenia, increasing infection risk. Checking temperature every 4 hours detects fever early, a priority. Options B, C, and D are secondary: urine output is unrelated, bleeding gums suggest thrombocytopenia, and blood cultures require fever.