NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Tests Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who has a new prescription for Rh immunoglobulin. The client has an Rh-negative blood type and gave birth 24 hours ago to a newborn who has an Rh-positive blood type. Which of the following statements by the client would indicate a correct understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rh immunoglobulin prevents antibody formation against Rh-positive fetal blood, given within 72 hours postpartum. The prenatal dose is separate, 6 weeks is too late, and 3-month testing is not standard.
Question 2 of 5
While caring for a toddler with croup, which initial sign of croup requires the nurse's immediate attention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory rate of 42. An elevated respiratory rate indicates potential airway obstruction, requiring urgent intervention.
Extract:
Laboratory Reference Ranges
Creatinine
Male: 0.6–1.3 mg/dL
(53–114.9 μmol/L)
Female: 0.5–1.2 mg/dL
(44.2–106.1 μmol/L)
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is planning to assess 4 assigned clients. Which client situation is of greatest concern and warrants immediate assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Severe pain (10/10) with bloating, nausea, and vomiting in an inguinal hernia suggests strangulation, a surgical emergency. High creatinine, urinary retention, and infected ulcers are urgent but less immediately life-threatening.
Extract:
Question 4 of 5
After receiving shift report, the nurse is assessing a client started on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole 2 days ago for treatment of a urinary tract infection. The client reports itching, and the nurse notices a diffuse maculopapular rash on the client's face. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Examining the trunk and limbs determines the rash’s extent, guiding whether it’s a mild reaction or a severe one (e.g., Stevens-Johnson syndrome). Diphenhydramine, epinephrine, or allergy reassessment are secondary until the rash is fully assessed.
Question 5 of 5
The orthopedic health care provider instructs a client with a fractured right femur, who has been non-weight bearing for the past 5 weeks, to progress to full-weight bearing on the right leg. Which advanced crutch gait that most closely resembles normal walking should the nurse reinforce when teaching the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The 2-point gait mimics normal walking, alternating crutch and opposite leg, suitable for full-weight bearing. 3-point is for non-weight bearing, 4-point is slower, and 5-point does not exist.