NCLEX-RN
Practice NCLEX RN Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is preparing to hang a unit of blood on a client. The blood has been checked off with two RNs and the pre-infusion vitals recorded. The nurse is at the bedside monitoring the infusion. Shortly after beginning the infusion, the pump alarm sounds. The IV has infiltrated. No blood has yet reached the client. The client is a hard stick, and the nurse realizes that a line cannot be placed within the time frame to begin the infusion. Which action by the nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Since no blood reached the client and IV access cannot be re-established within the time frame, the nurse should cancel the order and notify the provider to reassess the need for transfusion.
Question 2 of 5
Cefaclor (Ceclor) is prescribed for a child with an infection. The order states to give 20 mg/kg/day in divided doses every 8 hours. The child weighs 86 pounds. The nurse would administer how many milligrams per dose?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Weight: 86 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 39.09 kg.
Total daily dose: 39.09 × 20 = 781.8 mg/day. Divided every 8 hours (3 doses): 781.8 ÷ 3 ≈ 260.6 mg/dose. Closest answer: 260 mg (
A), but per standard rounding, 68 mg (
B) may reflect a calculation error in the question.
Question 3 of 5
A young adult patient constantly seeks attention from the nurses, stomping away from the nurses’ station and pouting when her requests are refused. Which of the following responses by the nurse is MOST appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: reward nonseeking attention behaviors by giving the patient unsolicited attention
Question 4 of 5
The 84-year-old male has returned from the recovery room following a total hip repair. He complains of pain and is medicated with morphine sulfate and promethazine. Which medication should be kept available for the client being treated with opioid analgesics?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Naloxone reverses opioid overdose, critical for managing respiratory depression from morphine.
Question 5 of 5
A client is post-operative laryngectomy for cancer of the larynx. Which nursing diagnosis would be the priority for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ineffective airway clearance is the priority post-laryngectomy due to the risk of mucus obstruction in the new airway (stoma), which can be life-threatening.