NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing hypotension and respiratory depression after administration of IV midazolam. The nurse should anticipate that the client will receive
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Midazolam, a benzodiazepine, can cause respiratory depression and hypotension in overdose. Flumazenil (
D) is the specific antidote, reversing benzodiazepine effects. Acetylcysteine (
A) treats acetaminophen overdose, benztropine (
B) manages extrapyramidal symptoms, and phentolamine (
C) treats hypertensive crises, none of which apply here.
Question 2 of 5
A client is being discharged with plans to return home alone. The client cannot get up from a chair without help and is very unsteady when standing, even with a walker. The nurse expresses concern, but the primary health care provider is adamant that the client be discharged today. Which team member would be most appropriate to assist the nurse in advocating for this client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client’s mobility limitations and unsafe discharge plan require advocacy for alternative arrangements, such as home care or facility placement. A social worker (
D) specializes in coordinating resources, assessing home safety, and advocating for patient needs, making them the best team member to assist. A psychologist (
A) focuses on mental health, while occupational (
B) and physical therapists (
C) address functional skills but not discharge planning.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse observes a client using a walker. Which observation indicates that the client needs more instruction?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Using the walker to pull up risks tipping, indicating improper use and a need for further instruction on safe walker technique.
Extract:
Laboratory results
Hematocrit
Male: 42%–52%
(0.42-0.52)
Female: 37%–47%
(0.37–0.47) 30%
(0.30)
Activated PTT
Baseline: 30–40 sec 110 sec
Platelets
150,000–400,000/mm3
(150–400 × 109/L) 80,000/mm3
(80 x 109/L)
PT
11–12.5 sec 11 sec
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client who is prescribed acyclovir for genital herpes. Which statement should be included by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Heparin is an anticoagulant that helps prevent further clot formation. It is titrated based on activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT). The therapeutic aPTT target is 1.5-2.0 times the normal reference range of 30-40
seconds. A aPTT value >100 seconds would be considered critical and could result in life-threatening side
effects. Common sentinel events that result from heparin drips include epistaxis, hematuria, and gastrointestina
bleeds (Option 1).
(Option 2) A normal hematocrit for a female is 37%-47% (0.37-0.47). In a client with a history of chronic
anemia, a hematocrit of 30% (0.30) may be an expected finding.
(Option 3) A normal platelet count is 150,000-400,000/mm* (150-400 x 10%L). In a client with a history of liver
cirrhosis, a platelet count of 80,000/mmª (80 x 10%/L) would be anticipated. An episode of bleeding rarely occurs
with a platelet count >50,000 mm* (50 x 10%/L).
(Option 4) A normal prothrombin time is 11-12.5 seconds, and so a level of 11 seconds would not be
concerning.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
Spinal headaches are a common occurrence following spinal anesthesia. Which of the following nursing interventions can help prevent a spinal headache?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Increasing fluid intake helps maintain cerebrospinal fluid pressure, reducing the risk of spinal headaches post-spinal anesthesia.