NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with suspected hypoglycemia. Which finding is most consistent with this condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Hypoglycemia causes sympathetic activation, leading to tremors and sweating as the body attempts to raise glucose levels. Chest pain, fever, and bradycardia are not typical.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client with a history of glaucoma. Which medication is the client most likely taking?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Timolol, a beta-blocker eye drop, is commonly used to reduce intraocular pressure in glaucoma. Lasix, Norvasc, and Zestril treat other conditions (edema, hypertension).
Question 3 of 5
Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial contractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. Diuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemia. Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.
Question 4 of 5
A client with a fractured leg is exhibiting shortness of breath, pain upon deep breathing, and hemoptysis. What do these clinical manifestations indicate to the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Shortness of breath, pleuritic pain, and hemoptysis are classic signs of pulmonary embolus, often associated with immobility from a fracture. CHF (
A) causes edema, ARDS (
C) causes diffuse respiratory failure, and tension pneumothorax (
D) causes tracheal deviation.
Question 5 of 5
A 22-year-old client who is being seen in the clinic for a possible asthma attack stops wheezing suddenly as the nurse is doing a lung assessment. Which one of the following nursing interventions is most important?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During impending respiratory failure or asthmatic complications, the client is placed in the high-Fowler position to facilitate comfort and promote optimal gas exchange. Arterial blood gases are monitored in the treatment of respiratory failure during an asthma attack, but it is not an initial intervention. O2 therapy is used during an asthma attack, but it is not the initial intervention. The usual prescribed amount is a cautiously low flow rate of 1-2 L/min. Wheezing is a characteristic clinical finding during an asthma attack. If wheezing suddenly ceases, it usually indicates a complete airway obstruction and requires immediate treatment for respiratory failure or arrest.