NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin (Glucophage). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Stopping metformin abruptly (
C) can worsen glycemic control, indicating a need for further teaching. Taking with meals (
A), monitoring sugar (
B), and reporting muscle pain (
D) are correct.
Question 2 of 5
What is the most effective method to identify early breast cancer lumps?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mammograms are less effective than breast self-examination for the diagnosis of abnormalities in younger women, who have denser breast tissue. They are more effective for women older than 40. Up to 15% of early-stage breast cancers are detected by physical examination; however, 95% are detected by women doing breast self-examination. Ultrasound is used primarily to determine the location of cysts and to distinguish cysts from solid masses. Monthly breast self-examination has been shown to be the most effective method for early detection of breast cancer. Approximately 95% of lumps are detected by women themselves.
Question 3 of 5
A behavioral modification program is recommended by the multidisciplinary team working with a 15-year-old client with anorexia nervosa. A nursing plan of care based on this modality would include:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This answer is incorrect. Role playing is based on learning but is not based on the behavioral modification model. This answer is correct. The behavioral modification model is based on negative and positive reinforcers to change behavior. This answer is incorrect. Verbal catharsis is not an intervention based on behavioral modification. This answer is incorrect. Although an acceptable nursing intervention, it is not based on behavioral modification.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of a ventricular septal defect. Which finding should be reported to the doctor immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cyanosis in a ventricular septal defect indicates significant shunting and hypoxemia, a critical finding requiring immediate reporting. Murmurs, tachycardia, and fatigue are expected but less urgent.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse at a college campus is preparing to medicate several students who have been exposed to meningococcal meningitis.Which would the nurse most likely administer?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone antibiotic recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis in meningococcal meningitis due to its effectiveness against Neisseria meningitidis. Ampicillin, Vancomycin, and Piperacillin/Tazobactam are not typically used for this purpose.