NCLEX Questions, NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 157

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Question 1 of 5

A 4 days postpartum client who is gravida 3, para 3, is examined by the home health nurse during her first postpartum home visit. The nurse notes that she has a pink vaginal discharge with a serosanguineous consistency. The nurse would most accurately chart the client's lochia as:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Lochia rubra is bloody with clots and occurs 1-3 days postpartum. There is no such term as lochia rosa. Lochia serosa is a pink-brown discharge with a serosanguineous consistency that occurs 4-9 days postpartum. Lochia alba is yellow to white in color and occurs approximately 10 days postpartum.

Question 2 of 5

Based on your knowledge of genetic inheritance, which of these statements is true for autosomal recessive genetic disorders?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: If both parents are affected by the disorder and are not just carriers, then all their children would manifest the same disorder.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of multiple sclerosis. Which intervention is most appropriate to prevent complications?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hot baths can exacerbate multiple sclerosis symptoms by increasing body temperature, causing fatigue or weakness. Weight-bearing exercise is encouraged, antibiotics are not routine, and fluid restriction is harmful.

Question 4 of 5

The chart of a client with schizophrenia states that the client has echolalia. The nurse can expect the client to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Echolalia in schizophrenia involves repeating words or phrases spoken by others, reflecting impaired communication. Rhyming, irrelevant details, or neologisms are different symptoms.

Question 5 of 5

A 3-year-old female client is brought into the pediatric clinic because she limps. She has not been to the clinic since she was 9 months old. The nurse practitioner describes the limp as a 'Trendelenburg gait.' This gait is characteristic of:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: (A, C,
D) A Trendelenburg gait is not characteristic of any of these disorders. The downward slant of one hip is a positive sign of dislocation in the weight-bearing hip. If one hip is dislocated, the child walks with a characteristic limp known as the Trendelenburg gait.

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