NCLEX-PN
NCLEX PN Practice Test Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Assessment of a client with a history of stroke reveals that the client understands and follows commands but answers questions with incorrect word choices. The nurse documents the presence of which communication deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aphasia (
A) is a language disorder causing difficulty with word choice or expression, common in stroke affecting language centers. The client’s ability to follow commands but use incorrect words suggests expressive aphasia. Apraxia (
B) affects motor planning, dysarthria (
C) impairs speech articulation, and dysphagia (
D) involves swallowing difficulties, none of which match the described deficit.
Question 2 of 5
A client diagnosed with trichomonal vaginal infection (trichomoniasis) is prescribed metronidazole. Which directions are essential for the nurse to reinforce? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,D,E
Rationale: Metronidazole treatment for trichomoniasis requires specific instructions. Avoiding alcohol (
A) prevents a disulfiram-like reaction. Partner treatment (
D) is essential to prevent reinfection, as trichomoniasis is sexually transmitted. Urine discoloration (E) is a possible side effect to anticipate. Douching (
B) is not recommended, as it disrupts vaginal flora. Birth control pills (
C) do not prevent recurrence of this infection.
Question 3 of 5
A client is receiving IV potassium. The IV pump displays an occlusion alarm. The tubing is free of occlusions, and the IV flushes easily without symptoms of infiltration. Which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An occlusion alarm with patent tubing suggests a pump malfunction. Exchanging the pump (
B) ensures safe delivery. Discarding (
A) is unnecessary, a new catheter (
C) is not indicated, and gravity drip (
D) risks rapid infusion.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is drawing blood from a client's peripheral vein for laboratory specimens. Which of the following are correct nursing actions? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C
Rationale: A tourniquet left on too long (
A) can cause hemoconcentration, so it should be removed after 1 minute. Pulsating blood (
C) indicates arterial puncture, requiring immediate needle withdrawal and pressure to prevent hematoma. Wet alcohol (
B) can cause hemolysis, and the ventral wrist (
D) is a risky site due to nerves and arteries. Vigorous shaking (E) damages blood cells, so gentle inversion is preferred.
Question 5 of 5
A client taking Zoloft (sertraline) tells the nurse that she has also been taking St. John's wort. The nurse should report this information to the doctor because:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: St. John's wort can induce the metabolism of Zoloft, potentially reducing its effectiveness, so the doctor may need to adjust the dose. Answer A is incorrect as they do not have opposing effects. Answer C is incorrect as St. John's wort has pharmacological effects. Answer D is incorrect as increasing the dose may not be necessary.