NCLEX-PN
Free PN NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is administering metoprolol (Lopressor) to a patient with hypertension. Which of the following assessments is most important before administering this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, lowers blood pressure and heart rate, so assessing blood pressure prevents hypotension or bradycardia. Respiratory rate, temperature, and oxygen saturation are less critical.
Question 2 of 5
A client, age 21, is admitted with bacterial meningitis. Which hospital room would be the appropriate choice for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with bacterial meningitis should be kept in isolation for at least 24 hours after admission and, during the initial acute phase, should be as close to the nurses' station as possible to allow maximal observation. Placing the client in a room with a client who has viral meningitis may cause harm to both clients because the organisms causing viral and bacterial meningitis differ; either client may contract the other's disease. Immunity to bacterial meningitis can't be acquired; therefore, a client who previously had bacterial meningitis shouldn't be put at risk by rooming with a client who has just been diagnosed with this disease.
Extract:
A patient with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder has been drinking copious amounts of water and voiding frequently. The patient is experiencing muscle cramps, twitching, and is reporting dizziness.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse checks lab work for
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Symptoms suggest hyponatremia from excessive water intake, requiring electrolyte assessment.
Extract:
Which of the following is considered a sequela of a staphylococcal infection that may result to glomerulonephritis?
Question 4 of 5
Infected burn wound
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Impetigo is a bacterial infection of the skin caused by streptococci or staphylococci. Group A hemolytic streptococci can cause rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis.
Extract:
Question 5 of 5
An adult is scheduled for a cardioversion next week. What should the nurse plan to include when teaching the client about the procedure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Cardioversion requires sedation, so the client must be NPO for 8 hours to prevent aspiration. The client is sedated, not awake, it's not typically repeated monthly, and it's used for atrial arrhythmias, not ventricular fibrillation.