NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Free Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rhythm method relies on predicting ovulation based on menstrual cycle patterns. Regular menses are essential for accurate prediction. Age intercourse frequency and temperature range are less critical to its success.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of chronic migraines is admitted with complaints of nausea. The nurse should give priority to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antiemetics relieve nausea in migraines, improving comfort and preventing dehydration.
Question 3 of 5
A 27-year-old primigravida at 32 weeks' gestation has been diagnosed with complete placenta previa. Conservative management including bed rest is the proper medical management. The goal for fetal survival is based on fetal lung maturity. The test used to determine fetal lung maturity is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dinitrophenylhydrazine is a laboratory test used to detect phenylketonuria, maple syrup urine disease, and Lowe's syndrome. Metachromatic stain is a laboratory test that may be used to diagnose Tay-Sachs and other lipid diseases of the central nervous system. The blood serum phenylalanine test is diagnostic of phenylketonuria and can be used for wide-scale screening. A lecithin-sphingomyelin ratio of at least 2:1 is indicative of fetal lung maturity, and survival of the fetus is likely.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease. Which food should the client avoid?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Spicy foods can irritate the gastric mucosa, exacerbating peptic ulcer disease. Apples, rice, and milk (in moderation) are generally safe.
Question 5 of 5
A 67-year-old man had a physical examination prior to beginning volunteer work at the hospital. A routine chest x-ray demonstrated left ventricular hypertrophy. His blood pressure was 180/110. He is 45 lb overweight. His diet is high in sodium and fat. He has a strong family history of hypertension. The client is placed on antihypertensive medication; a low-sodium, low-fat diet; and an exercise regimen. On his next visit, compliance would best be determined by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure within acceptable range best demonstrates compliance, but weight loss cannot be accomplished without adherence to medication, diet, and exercise. Absence of side effects does not indicate compliance with medication. Pill counts can be misleading because the client can alter pill counts prior to visit. Left ventricular hypertrophy is not an accurate measure of compliance because hypertrophy frequently does not decrease even with pharmacological management. Therapeutic blood levels measure the drug level at the time of the test. There is no indication of compliance several days before testing.