NCLEX-RN
Best NCLEX RN Question Bank Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client is admitted to the hospital in sickle cell crisis. For which clinical indicator should the nurse monitor the client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Sickle cell crisis usually causes severe pain in the bones and joints along with joint swelling. The pain develops as a result of microvascular occlusion from abnormal sickled hemoglobin that occurs with hypoxia. Therapy includes pain management with opioid analgesics, supplemental oxygen, and intravenous fluids. The remaining options are not associated with sickle cell crisis.
Question 2 of 5
A 32-year-old woman recently diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease is admitted to the hospital outpatient clinic for staging by undergoing a bone marrow aspiration and biopsy. To obtain more information about the client's nutrition status the nurse should review the results of which of the following tests?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Albumin levels reflect nutritional status, as low levels indicate protein malnutrition, common in cancer patients. The other tests assess hematologic or liver function.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse observes a client during a seizure and notes that the client's entire body became rigid, and the muscles in all four extremities alternated between relaxation and contraction. Which type of seizure should the nurse document that the client had experienced?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The description of the seizure, with the entire body becoming rigid (tonic phase) followed by alternating relaxation and contraction of muscles in all four extremities (clonic phase), is characteristic of a tonic-clonic seizure. Partial seizures involve only a portion of the body or brain, absence seizures are brief lapses in awareness without significant motor activity, and complex partial seizures involve altered consciousness with automatisms, none of which match the described symptoms.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is administering propranolol (Inderal) to a client for control of migraine headaches. The client's pulse rate is 56 bpm. What should the nurse do next?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can cause bradycardia. A pulse of 56 bpm is concerning and warrants immediate physician notification to evaluate the need for dose adjustment or intervention.
Question 5 of 5
Select the member of the multidisciplinary team that you would most likely collaborate with when the client is at risk for falls due to an impaired gait.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A physical therapist specializes in assessing and improving gait and mobility, making them the most appropriate team member to collaborate with for a client at risk for falls due to impaired gait.