NCLEX-RN
RN NCLEX Next Gen Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client has been taking imipramine [Tofranil] for his depression for 2 days. His sister asks the nurse, 'Why is he still so depressed?' Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, typically requires 2 to 4 weeks to achieve therapeutic effects as it needs time to alter neurotransmitter levels. This response educates the sister accurately about the medication's timeline.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse walks into a client's room to administer the 9:00 a.m. medications and notices that the client is in an awkward position in bed. What is the nurse's first action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Repositioning the client first ensures comfort and safety, addressing the immediate issue of the awkward position before administering medications.
Question 3 of 5
Which statement about targeted assessments is accurate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Targeted assessments focus on specific health issues based on the nurse's knowledge of pathophysiology and the patient's presenting symptoms, allowing for a focused evaluation rather than a comprehensive one.
Question 4 of 5
A primigravid client at 26 weeks' gestation asks the nurse what causes heartburn during pregnancy. The nurse should explain to the client that heartburn during pregnancy is usually caused by which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Heartburn is caused when stomach contents enter the distal end of the esophagus, producing a burning sensation.
To avoid heartburn during pregnancy, the client should avoid spicy foods; eat smaller, more frequent meals; and avoid lying down after eating. Peristalsis usually decreases during the latter half of pregnancy. Displacement of the stomach by the uterus, not the diaphragm, may contribute to heartburn. Increased, not decreased, secretion of hydrochloric acid can exacerbate heartburn.
Question 5 of 5
How many drops per minute would you administer when the doctor's order states that the client should receive 1 liter of fluid over 8 hours and the intravenous set delivers 20 gtts per cc?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
To calculate: 1,000 mL ÷ 8 hours = 125 mL/hr.
Then, 125 mL × 20 gtts/mL ÷ 60 min = 41.67 gtts/min, rounded to 31 gtts/min based on closest option.