NCLEX-RN
RN NCLEX Next Gen Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 24-year-old client has been diagnosed with acute osteomyelitis in the left leg. He complains of acute pain in the leg that intensifies when he moves it. The client has a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) and a reddened, warm area in the midcalf region over the shaft of the tibia. Based on this information, which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate for this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Activity intolerance due to severe pain is the most appropriate diagnosis, as pain limits mobility. Amputation is not indicated, body image is secondary, and fever does not directly cause fluid volume deficit.
Question 2 of 5
A client has a prescription to have a set of arterial blood gases (ABGs) drawn, and the intended site is the radial artery. The nurse ensures that which is positive before the ABGs are drawn?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Allen test is performed before drawing ABGs. Both the radial and ulnar arteries are occluded and then pressure on the ulnar artery is released. Observation is made in the distal circulation. If the results are positive, then the client has adequate circulation and the radial artery may be used. Turner's sign is the bluish discoloration of the flanks and is indicative of pancreatitis. The Babinski reflex is checked by stroking upward on the sole of the foot. Brudzinski's sign tests for nuchal rigidity by bending the head down toward the chest.
Question 3 of 5
A parent of a 9-year-old child newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus is very concerned about the child going to school and participating in social events. The nurse creating a plan of care should formulate which goals to address these concerns? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: D,E
Rationale:
To effectively manage social events in the child's life, the family and the child need to integrate the care and management of diabetes into their daily living. In addition, the child's teachers and the school nurse should be aware of their concerns. The other options may be appropriate goals, but they do not deal with social issues.
Question 4 of 5
A client has been taking imipramine [Tofranil] for his depression for 2 days. His sister asks the nurse, 'Why is he still so depressed?' Which of the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, typically requires 2 to 4 weeks to achieve therapeutic effects as it needs time to alter neurotransmitter levels. This response educates the sister accurately about the medication's timeline.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following statements best explains why the nurse should evaluate gastric residual in administering the client's next enteral feeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Evaluating gastric residual prevents overdistention of the stomach, which can lead to aspiration or discomfort. It does not directly assess nutrient absorption or feeding adequacy.