Questions 150

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

RN NCLEX Next Gen Questions Questions

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Question 1 of 5

A client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has learned about managing diet and fluid restriction between dialysis treatments. The nurse determines that the client is compliant with the therapeutic regimen when the assessment demonstrates a weight gain of no more than how many kilograms between hemodialysis treatments?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The primary health care provider will prescribe the amount of fluid that the client is allowed to gain between dialysis treatments, but usually a limit of 1 to 1.5 kg of weight gain between dialysis treatments helps prevent hypotension that tends to occur during dialysis with the removal of larger fluid loads. The nurse determines that the client is compliant with fluid restriction if this weight gain is not exceeded.

Question 2 of 5

Which of the following clients is at greatest risk for extravasation?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Bendamustine, a chemotherapy drug, is a vesicant, posing a high risk for extravasation, which can cause severe tissue damage if it leaks into surrounding tissues.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a history of cirrhosis is prescribed propranolol (Inderal). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following therapeutic effects?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Propranolol reduces portal hypertension by decreasing portal vein pressure in cirrhosis.

Question 4 of 5

A 24-year-old client has been diagnosed with acute osteomyelitis in the left leg. He complains of acute pain in the leg that intensifies when he moves it. The client has a temperature of 101°F (38.3°C) and a reddened, warm area in the midcalf region over the shaft of the tibia. Based on this information, which of the following nursing diagnoses would be most appropriate for this client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Activity intolerance due to severe pain is the most appropriate diagnosis, as pain limits mobility. Amputation is not indicated, body image is secondary, and fever does not directly cause fluid volume deficit.

Question 5 of 5

A client with a history of anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should explain that this medication:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone typically takes 2-4 weeks to achieve its full anti-anxiety effect, unlike benzodiazepines.

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