Questions 150

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX RN Questions with Detailed Explanations Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A client has been given a prescription for propantheline as adjunctive treatment for peptic ulcer disease. How should the nurse tell the client to take this medication?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Propantheline is an antimuscarinic anticholinergic medication that decreases gastrointestinal secretions. It should be administered 30 minutes before meals to reduce acid secretion before food intake stimulates gastric acid production. Administering with meals or just after meals would reduce its effectiveness, and taking it with antacids could interfere with its absorption.

Question 2 of 5

A client has primary health care provider instructions to take ibuprofen 0.4 g for mild pain. The medication bottle contains ibuprofen 200-mg tablets. How many tablets will the nurse instruct the client to take for each dose? Fill in the blank. tablets

Correct Answer: 2

Rationale:
To determine the number of tablets, divide the prescribed dose by the strength per tablet: 0.4 g = 400 mg; 400 mg ÷ 200 mg per tablet = 2 tablets.
Therefore, the nurse instructs the client to take 2 tablets per dose.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of Crohn's disease who is prescribed mesalamine (Asacol). The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following side effects immediately?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Fever may indicate an exacerbation of Crohn's disease or a side effect of mesalamine, requiring immediate reporting.

Question 4 of 5

A woman is taking oral contraceptives. The nurse teaches the client that medications that may interfere with oral contraceptive efficacy include:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Certain antibiotics (e.g., rifampin) can reduce oral contraceptive efficacy by altering gut flora, affecting hormone absorption.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse on the antenatal unit is planning care for four clients. The nurse should assess which of the following clients first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The 19-year-old with bright red vaginal bleeding post-accident at 18 weeks is at high risk for miscarriage or placental abruption, requiring immediate assessment. The other clients are stable or less acute.

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