NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A child is to receive atropine 0.15 mg (1/400 g) as part of his preoperative medication. A vial containing atropine 0.4 mg (1/150 g)/mL is on hand. How much atropine should be given?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The answer is correct. 0.4 mg = 1 mL : 0.15 mg = x mL, 0.4x = 0.15, x = 0.15 / 0.4, x = 0.375 or 0.38 mL. Sufficient information is provided to determine the amount of atropine to administer. The amount of atropine available and the amount of atropine ordered is required to determine the amount of atropine to be given.
Question 2 of 5
The physician has ordered a lumbar puncture for a client with suspected Guillain-Barre syndrome. The spinal fluid of a client with Guillain-Barre syndrome typically shows:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Guillain-Barre syndrome is characterized by elevated protein levels in cerebrospinal fluid with a normal cell count, reflecting nerve root inflammation.
Question 3 of 5
Early in her ninth month of pregnancy, a client has been diagnosed as having mild preeclampsia. In counseling her about her diet, the nurse must emphasize the importance of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Women with pregnancy-induced hypertension have a reduced plasma volume secondary to venous vessel constriction, not hypovolemia; therefore, sodium restriction is not recommended. It is suggested that these women avoid extremely salty foods. Drinking six to eight glasses of water per day facilitates optimal fluid volume and renal perfusion, but it will not decrease the venous vessel constriction of pregnancy-induced hypertension. Carbohydrate needs increase during pregnancy, specifically during the second and third trimesters, but they have not been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension. Loss of urinary protein (proteinuria) is associated with increased permeability of the large protein molecules with pregnancy-induced hypertension. Additional dietary protein also helps increase the plasma colloidal osmotic pressure. Diets deficient in protein have been linked to pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Question 4 of 5
Which classification of drugs is contraindicated for the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Positive inotropic agents should not be administered owing to their action of increasing myocardial contractility. Increased ventricular contractility would increase outflow tract obstruction in the client with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Vasodilators are not typically prescribed but are not contraindicated. Diuretics are used with caution to avoid causing hypovolemia. Antidysrhythmics are typically needed to treat both atrial and ventricular dysrhythmias.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse reviewing the lab results of a client receiving Cytoxan (cyclophosphamide) for Hodgkin's lymphoma finds the following: WBC 4,200, RBC 3,800,000, platelets 25,000, and serum creatinine 1.0 mg. The nurse recognizes that the greatest risk for the client at this time is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A platelet count of 25,000 indicates severe thrombocytopenia, posing a significant risk of bleeding, which is the greatest immediate concern compared to infection, anemia, or renal failure.