NCLEX-RN
NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 25-year-old client is admitted for a tonsillectomy. She tells the nurse that she has had episodes of muscle cramps, weakness, and unexplained temperature elevation. Many years ago her father died shortly after surgery after developing a high fever. She further tells the nurse that her surgeon is having her take dantrolene sodium (Dantrium) prophylactically prior to her tonsillectomy. Dantrolene sodium is ordered preoperatively to reduce the risk or prevent:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Dantrolene sodium is a peripheral skeletal muscle relaxant and would have no effect on a postoperative infection. Dantrolene sodium is indicated prophylactically for clients with malignant hyperthermia or with a family history of the disorder. The mortality rate for malignant hyperthermia is high. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an exercise-induced muscle pain and spasm and is unrelated to malignant hyperthermia.
Question 2 of 5
During morning assessments, the nurse finds that a client's nephrostomy tube has been clamped. The nurse's first action should be to:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unclamping the nephrostomy tube is the priority to restore urine flow and prevent complications like hydronephrosis or infection.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia. Which of the following signs or symptoms would indicate that the client has been noncompliant with ordered B12 injections?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Paresthesia of hands and feet indicates B12 deficiency due to noncompliance with injections, as B12 is needed for nerve function. Hyperactivity (
A), weight gain (
B), and diarrhea (
D) are not specific to B12 deficiency.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following should be included in discharge teaching for a client with hepatitis C?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided as it is detoxified by the liver, which is compromised in hepatitis C. Aspirin is hepatotoxic, blood donation is not allowed, and hepatitis C is not spread orally.
Question 5 of 5
After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better, it often indicates that the client has made the decision to kill himself or herself and has developed a plan to do so. Improvement in behavior is not indicative of an exacerbation of depressive symptoms. The depressed client has a tendency for self-violence, not violence toward others. Depressive behavior is not always accompanied by psychotic behavior.