NCLEX Questions, NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions, NCLEX-RN Questions, Nurselytic

Questions 158

NCLEX-RN

NCLEX-RN Test Bank

NCLEX Practice Test RN Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of a deep vein thrombosis is receiving Warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should teach the client to avoid:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which antagonizes warfarin’s anticoagulant effect. Dairy, citrus, and high-fat foods do not significantly affect warfarin.

Question 2 of 5

Which finding in the patient's history contraindicates the use of Imitrex (sumatriptan) for the prevention of migraine headaches?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is a vasoconstrictor contraindicated in patients with angina due to the risk of coronary artery vasoconstriction and ischemia. Diabetes renal calculi and peptic ulcer disease are not contraindications for sumatriptan.

Question 3 of 5

Joint Commission has established protocols for preventing surgical errors. Which steps are parts of that protocol?

Order the Items

Source Container

Circle the surgical site with a marker.
Verify patient information with a designated patient representative.
Designate operative site with a facility designated mark.
Include a copy of the Advanced Directives on the chart before surgery.
Verify patient information three times.
Observe pre-op time out before proceeding with surgery.

Correct Answer: C, E, F

Rationale: Joint Commission protocols include marking the site with a facility-designated mark (
C), verifying patient information multiple times (E), and performing a pre-op time-out (F). Circling the site (
A) is not standard. Patient representative verification (
B) and advance directives (
D) are not part of site verification.

Question 4 of 5

After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When the severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better, it often indicates that the client has made the decision to kill himself or herself and has developed a plan to do so. Improvement in behavior is not indicative of an exacerbation of depressive symptoms. The depressed client has a tendency for self-violence, not violence toward others. Depressive behavior is not always accompanied by psychotic behavior.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is caring for an obstetrical client in early labor. After the rupture of membranes, the nurse should give priority to:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: After rupture of membranes, assessing fetal heart tones is critical to detect distress, such as cord prolapse. Monitoring, anesthesia, and catheterization are secondary priorities.

Similar Questions

Access More Questions!

NCLEX RN Basic


$89/ 30 days

 

NCLEX RN Premium


$150/ 90 days