NCLEX-RN
NCLEX-RN Exam Practice Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A 2-year-old child with a scalp laceration and subdural hematoma of the temporal area as a result of falling out of bed should be prevented from:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A child with a subdural hematoma has increased ICP. Crying may significantly increase this pressure.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient with suspected diverticulitis. The nurse would be most prudent in questioning an order for which of the following diagnostic tests?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A barium enema is contraindicated in suspected diverticulitis due to the risk of perforation and peritonitis. Ultrasound, CT scans, and CBC are appropriate for diagnosing diverticulitis or assessing complications.
Question 3 of 5
A pregnant client is at the clinic for a third trimester prenatal visit. During this examination, it has been determined that her fetus is in a vertex presentation with the occiput located in her right anterior quadrant. On her chart this would be noted as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The fetus in the right occipitoposterior position would be presenting with the occiput in the maternal right posterior quadrant. Fetal position is defined by the location of the fetal presenting part in the four quadrants of the maternal pelvis. The right occipitoanterior is a fetus presenting with the occiput in mother's right anterior quadrant. The fetus in right sacroanterior position would be presenting a sacrum, not an occiput. The fetus in left occipitoanterior position would be presenting with the occiput in the mother's left anterior quadrant.
Question 4 of 5
The sputum of a client remains positive for the tubercle bacillus even though the client has been taking Laniazid (isoniazid) in combination with other antituberculars. The nurse recognizes that the client taking isoniazid should have a negative sputum culture within:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Effective antitubercular therapy, including isoniazid, typically results in a negative sputum culture within three months, indicating control of active infection.
Question 5 of 5
The client is admitted with a diagnosis of gestational trophoblastic disease. Which symptom is most likely to be present?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Gestational trophoblastic disease (e.g. molar pregnancy) causes markedly elevated hCG levels due to abnormal trophoblastic proliferation. Fetal heart tones are absent uterine size is larger and hypotension is not typical.