Hematology NCLEX Questions | Nurselytic

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Hematology NCLEX Questions Questions

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Question 1 of 5

Which sign/symptom should the nurse expect to assess in the client diagnosed with hemophilia A?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Hemophilia A causes bleeding; epistaxis (
A) is common. Petechiae (
B) indicate thrombocytopenia, emphysema (
C) is unrelated, and claudication (
D) is vascular.

Question 2 of 5

The client diagnosed with von Willebrand’s disease calls a clinic after experiencing hemarthrosis. The client states that factor concentrate is infusing. Which intervention should the nurse recommend now?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A. Aspirin (Ecotrin) and NSAIDs are contraindicated because they interfere with platelet aggregation. B. Hemarthrosis is bleeding into the joint. The pressure of the ice pack and cold will reduce the bleeding and swelling. The ice pack should be covered with a cloth. C. The client and family are usually taught how to administer factor concentrates at home at the first sign of bleeding. D. The splint should be left on initially to control bleeding. The client should be instructed on how to assess for adequate tissue perfusion.

Question 3 of 5

The charge nurse in the intensive care unit is making client assignments. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the graduate nurse who has just finished the three (3)-month orientation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Colostomy care (
A) is stable and suitable for a new graduate. ARDS (
B), DIC (
C), and severe anemia (
D) are critical, requiring experienced care.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with vaso-occlusive crisis. Which indicates the client is not meeting an appropriate stage of growth and development according to Erikson?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: At 32 (Intimacy vs. Isolation), lack of a significant other and disability (
A) suggest isolation, not meeting Erikson’s stage. Parenting (
B), caregiving (
C), and socializing (
D) align with Generativity, Generativity, and Identity stages.

Question 5 of 5

The client is diagnosed with hereditary spherocytosis. Which treatment/procedure would the nurse prepare the client to receive?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Spherocytosis causes hemolytic anemia; splenectomy (
B) reduces RBC destruction. BMT (
A) is for leukemia, transfusions (
C) are supportive, and liver biopsy (
D) is unrelated.

Similar Questions

The young adult, diagnosed with hemophilia A, is receiving a monthly scheduled dose of factor VIII cryoprecipitate. The client begins to cry during administration. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
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When reviewing the client’s medical record, the experienced nurse discovers that the client’s breast cancer is staged as T4 N3 M1. Which comment made by the experienced nurse to the new nurse is correct?
The nurse is caring for the female client recovering from a sickle cell crisis. The client tells the nurse her family is planning a trip this summer to Yellowstone National Park. Which response would be best for the nurse?
The nurse is preparing to administer the chemotherapeutic agent cisplatin IV to the client with ovarian cancer. The dose is 100 mg/m2 in 2 liters of DSW to be infused over 8 hours. What is the rate in milliliters (mL) per hour that the nurse should set the infusion pump to deliver the medication? __________ mL/hour (Record your answer as a whole number.)

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