NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Exam Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which assessment finding is of most concern for a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is a palpable abdominal mass. In a 46-year-old woman with acute pancreatitis, a palpable abdominal mass may indicate the presence of a pancreatic abscess, which requires rapid surgical drainage to prevent sepsis. Absent bowel sounds, abdominal tenderness, and left upper quadrant pain are common symptoms in acute pancreatitis but do not necessarily indicate an immediate need for surgical intervention.
Therefore, the presence of a palpable abdominal mass is the most concerning finding in this scenario.
Question 2 of 5
Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effects of therapy for a 62-year-old female patient with acute pancreatitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Amylase. In acute pancreatitis, amylase levels are typically elevated. Monitoring amylase levels helps assess the effectiveness of therapy in managing the condition. Elevated amylase is a key indicator of pancreatic inflammation. Calcium (
Choice
A) levels may be affected in pancreatitis, but they are not the primary indicator for evaluating therapy effectiveness. Bilirubin (
Choice
B) and Potassium (
Choice
D) levels may also be altered in pancreatitis, but they are not specific markers for monitoring therapy response in acute pancreatitis.
Question 3 of 5
A 67-year-old male patient with acute pancreatitis has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction and is NPO. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Abdominal pain is decreased.' In a patient with acute pancreatitis, the goal of using an NG tube for suction and keeping the patient NPO is to decrease the release of pancreatic enzymes and alleviate pain.
Therefore, a decrease in abdominal pain would indicate the effectiveness of these therapies. Bowel sounds being present do not necessarily indicate treatment effectiveness, as they can still be present even if the therapies are not fully effective. Normal electrolyte levels are important but do not directly reflect the efficacy of NG suction and NPO status. The resolution of Grey Turner sign, a bruising over the flanks associated with pancreatitis, is a late and non-specific finding and waiting for it to resolve is not a reliable indicator of treatment effectiveness.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is planning care for a 48-year-old woman with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In acute severe pancreatitis, there is a risk of respiratory failure as a complication, making the maintenance of normal respiratory function the priority outcome. This patient may develop respiratory issues due to the inflammatory process affecting the diaphragm. While pain control, absence of ongoing pancreatic disease, and fluid/electrolyte balance are crucial, they are secondary to ensuring adequate oxygenation and ventilation to prevent respiratory compromise.
Question 5 of 5
During the admission assessment of a client with chronic bilateral glaucoma, which statement by the client would the nurse anticipate due to this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In chronic bilateral glaucoma, peripheral visual field loss occurs due to elevated intraocular pressure, leading to the need to turn the head to compensate for the visual field deficit. This symptom is characteristic of advanced glaucoma.
Choice A is incorrect as constant blurred vision is a common symptom but not specific to peripheral vision loss in glaucoma.
Choice B is incorrect because specific visual field deficits are more common than complete loss on one side.
Choice D is incorrect as seeing floaters (specks floating in the eyes) is associated with other eye conditions like posterior vitreous detachment, not glaucoma.