NCLEX-RN
NCLEX RN Practice Questions Exam Cram Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
When asked to describe in layman's terms an overview of the condition called osteomyelitis, what would be the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Osteomyelitis is an infection in the bone that can be caused by bacteria reaching the bone either from outside the body (such as through an open fracture) or inside the body (such as through the bloodstream). This response provides a concise and accurate explanation of osteomyelitis, making it the best choice.
Choices A and B provide inaccurate information about the condition, attributing it to age-related bone breakdown and Vitamin D deficiency, which are not correct causes of osteomyelitis.
Choice D deflects the question instead of providing the patient with a clear explanation, making it an inappropriate response.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child after corrective surgery for Tetralogy of Fallot. The mother reports that the child has suddenly begun seizing. The nurse recognizes this problem is probably due to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is a cerebral vascular accident. Polycythemia occurs as a physiological reaction to chronic hypoxemia, which commonly occurs in clients with Tetralogy of Fallot. Polycythemia and the resultant increased viscosity of the blood increase the risk of thromboembolic events, including cerebrovascular accidents. Signs and symptoms of a cerebral vascular accident include sudden paralysis, altered speech, extreme irritability or fatigue, and seizures. Postoperative meningitis (choice
B) is less likely in this scenario as the sudden onset of seizing is more indicative of a vascular event rather than an infection. Medication reaction (choice
C) is not the most probable cause given the history provided. Metabolic alkalosis (choice
D) is not associated with sudden seizing in this context.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is planning care for a client during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. Which of the following actions would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Administering analgesic therapy as ordered is the most appropriate action during the acute phase of a sickle cell vasoocclusive crisis. In this phase, the primary focus is on managing the severe pain experienced by the individual. Analgesic therapy helps alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the crisis. The other options are not the priority during this phase. Fluid restriction is not recommended as hydration is crucial in managing a vasoocclusive crisis. Ambulation may worsen the pain and should be minimized during this phase. Encouraging increased caloric intake is not directly related to managing the acute phase of a vasoocclusive crisis.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse admits a 3-week-old infant to the special care nursery with a diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. As the nurse reviews the birth history, which data would be most consistent with this diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'The infant received mechanical ventilation for 2 weeks.' Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is a condition primarily caused by therapies like positive-pressure ventilation used in the treatment of lung disease. This leads to lung damage and subsequent respiratory problems.
Choices A, B, and C are not consistent with the diagnosis of bronchopulmonary dysplasia. Gestational age assessment suggesting growth retardation is more indicative of intrauterine growth restriction, clearing meconium from the airway at delivery is related to potential respiratory issues at birth, and phototherapy for Rh incompatibility is unrelated to bronchopulmonary dysplasia.
Question 5 of 5
Which client is at highest risk for developing a pressure ulcer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Risk factors for pressure ulcers include: immobility, absence of sensation, decreased LOC, poor nutrition and hydration, skin moisture, incontinence, increased age, decreased immune response. This client has the greatest number of risk factors.