NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is caring for a 4-year-old client. What is the most appropriate pain scale for the nurse to use during the assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The Wong-Baker Pain Scale uses faces to identify the level of pain. Children over the age of 3 should use this scale to articulate their subjective feeling of pain as opposed to objective measures using the CRIES or FLACC Pain Scales. The McGill Pain Scale uses many words to characterize pain and is more appropriate for adult clients.
Question 2 of 5
Jane Love, a 35-year old gravida III para II at 23 weeks gestation, is seen in the Emergency Department with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Jane reports that she has been feeling tired and has noticed ankle swelling in the evening. Laboratory tests reveal a hemoglobin level of 11.5 g/dL. After evaluating the situation, the nurse determines that Jane is at risk for placenta previa, based on which of the following data?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester is a hallmark of placenta previa, where the placenta covers the cervical os, causing bleeding as the uterus grows.
Question 3 of 5
The severely depressed client tells the nurse, “I don't need these antidepressants; they're too expensive! I'm going to use St. John's wort instead.†Which is the most appropriate response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: St. John's wort has not been clinically proven effective for severe depression.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is assessing the client. Which findings indicate that the client may be experiencing physical changes from long-term use of prednisone? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C,D
Rationale: A: Weight gain and muscle atrophy are body changes that may occur with long-term glucocorticoid therapy. B: Muscle wasting (not increased muscle mass) is a side effect of prednisone. C: Fragile skin is a possible body change that may occur with long-term glucocorticoid therapy. D: Acne vulgaris may occur with long-term glucocorticoid therapy. E: Hirsutism (not alopecia) is a side effect of prednisone.
Question 5 of 5
The client taking rifampin brings a sample of urine that is orange in color to the clinic. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B,C,E
Rationale: A: A C&S is unnecessary because orange-colored urine is a normal finding in the client taking rifampin. B: The nurse should reassure the client that orange-colored urine is a normal finding in the client taking rifampin (Rifadin). C: The nurse should teach the client that the orange-colored urine and sweat can stain clothing and that the client should consider wearing nonwhite clothing or using undergarments if sweating is excessive. D: It is unnecessary to question continuation of rifampin if the urine is orange-colored because this is a normal finding. E: The nurse should inform the client that other body fluids, such as tears, sweat, and saliva, can also turn orange-colored with the use of rifampin (Rifadin).