NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A nurse working a surgical unit, notices a patient is experiencing SOB, calf pain, and warmth over the posterior calf. All of these may indicate which of the following medical conditions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: All of these factors (SOB, calf pain, and warmth) indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be a postoperative complication.
Question 2 of 5
Following a THR, the client asks the nurse, “Why am I receiving enoxaparin? With my last hip surgery, I was given a heparin injection.†What is the nurse's best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A: The cost of enoxaparin is more than twice the cost of the equivalent dose of heparin per injection. Both are available in prefilled syringes for subcutaneous injection. B: Both enoxaparin and heparin increase aPTT, which affects clotting. C: Because enoxaparin is more specific in inhibiting active factor X, the response is more stable, and the effect is two to four times longer than that of heparin. D: Enoxaparin is only administered subcutaneously. Heparin can be administered both subcutaneously and intravenously.
Question 3 of 5
The 5-year-old is receiving an IV infusion of D5 with 0.45 NaCl at 100 mL/hr. Which assessment findings suggest excessive parenteral fluid intake? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,D
Rationale: A: Dyspnea indicates fluid volume overload and occurs from fluid rapidly shifting between the intracellular and extracellular compartments. B: Lethargy and change in level of consciousness can occur from fluid shifting in brain cells. C: Gastric distention can occur from excessive oral (not IV) fluid intake or infection. D: Crackles indicate fluid volume overload and occur from fluid rapidly shifting into the alveoli. E: An elevated temperature is a sign of fluid volume deficit, not excess.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following diseases or conditions is least likely to be associated with increased potential for bleeding?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Pernicious anemia results from vitamin B12 deficiency due to lack of intrinsic factor. This can result from inadequate dietary intake, faulty absorption from the GI tract due to a lack of secretion of intrinsic factor normally produced by gastric mucosal cells and certain disorders of the small intestine that impair absorption. The nurse should instruct the client in the need for lifelong replacement of vitamin B12, as well as the need for folic acid, rest, diet, and support.
Question 5 of 5
The new nurse asks the experienced nurse why the first dose of the MMR vaccine is normally given at 12 to 15 months of age and not earlier, except with international travel. Which explanation by the experienced nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The second dose of the MMR vaccine can be given earlier, provided that at least 4 weeks has elapsed since the first dose. However, a second dose is usually not given earlier because sufficient immunity is usually present. B: The chance of developing only measles is greater if the vaccine is given at a younger age because the vaccine may neutralize the passive antibodies. C: The MMR provides active (not passive) immunity. D: Because the MMR vaccine is a live virus, a person develops a mild form of the diseases after administration, stimulating the body to develop immunity. The passively acquired antibodies to measles can interfere with the child's immune response to the vaccine, and no immunity may result.