NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The new nurse asks the experienced nurse why the first dose of the MMR vaccine is normally given at 12 to 15 months of age and not earlier, except with international travel. Which explanation by the experienced nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The second dose of the MMR vaccine can be given earlier, provided that at least 4 weeks has elapsed since the first dose. However, a second dose is usually not given earlier because sufficient immunity is usually present. B: The chance of developing only measles is greater if the vaccine is given at a younger age because the vaccine may neutralize the passive antibodies. C: The MMR provides active (not passive) immunity. D: Because the MMR vaccine is a live virus, a person develops a mild form of the diseases after administration, stimulating the body to develop immunity. The passively acquired antibodies to measles can interfere with the child's immune response to the vaccine, and no immunity may result.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reviewing the chart illustrated of the client diagnosed with stage III HF. Which conclusion should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: The digoxin should be withheld and not given until a serum digoxin level is determined. B: Signs of digoxin (Lanoxin) toxicity include seeing yellow halos around objects and dysrhythmias. The furosemide (Lasix) diuretic increases urinary excretion of potassium and can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia can contribute to both cardiac dysrhythmias and digoxin toxicity. C: A serum potassium level of 2.9 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. D: The yellow vision is a characteristic sign of digoxin toxicity and is not a sign of cerebral damage from an infarct due to atrial fibrillation or bleeding from the anticoagulants.
Question 3 of 5
The LPN has been asked to help a client taking Risperdal with activities of daily living in the morning. Which of these tasks is most likely to be potentially impacted by this medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Risperdal can cause orthostatic hypotension, so, to prevent a fall, care should be taken when changing positions.
Question 4 of 5
The client is placed on lorazepam for short-term treatment of anxiety. Which instruction by the nurse is most important with lorazepam use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic medication. If it is less effective after a few weeks, the client may be developing a tolerance to lorazepam, and the HCP should be notified of this.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse completes teaching the client who has PD about taking benztropine. Which statements made by the client indicate that teaching is effective? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,B,E
Rationale: A: Benztropine (Cogentin) may be crushed; this statement indicates teaching is effective. B: Many OTC medications contain alcohol. Alcohol should be avoided because it is another CNS depressant, and additive drowsiness can occur. This statement indicates teaching is effective. C: Benztropine should not be abruptly discontinued; symptoms will recur, and it may precipitate parkinsonian crisis. D: Benztropine is an anticholinergic that will cause a dry mouth, not drooling and increased secretions. E: Because benztropine (Cogentin) is a CNS depressant, driving should be avoided until the effects of the medication are known. This statement indicates teaching is effective.