NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is teaching the 14-year-old who is being given captopril for the first time. Which explanation would be most appropriate?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Captopril does not have any effect on asthma. B: While HR may slow in response to lowered BP, this is not the desired effect for which captopril is given. C: Captopril does not have any effect on blood sugar. D: Captopril (Capoten) is an ACE inhibitor and is indicated for the treatment of hypertension in children.
Question 2 of 5
The 16-year-old, hospitalized for barbiturate overdose, is receiving low-dose dopamine at 1 mcg/kg/min. Which finding in the client's medical record illustrated should prompt the nurse to conclude that dopamine is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Dopamine (Intropin) will have no effect on decreasing the incidence of PACs. B: Low-dose dopamine, 0.5-2.0 mcg/kg/min, acts on dopaminergic receptor sites along afferent arterioles in the glomerulus, dilates the renal vasculature, and improves urine output. C: Positive inotropic effects of dopamine include an increase in systolic BP with an increase in pulse pressure. D: Positive inotropic effects of dopamine include an increase in systolic BP with little or no effect on DBP.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of lispro and glargine insulins being administered to the 2-year-old with type 1 DM. Which findings on the serum laboratory report indicate that treatment is effective?
Correct Answer: A, B
Rationale: The treatment goal for children with type 1 DM is blood glucose levels within the normal range (60-105 mg/dL for a 2-year-old). Hgb A1c levels are indicative of the average blood glucose levels over the past 2 to 3 months; normal A1c is 3.9% to 7.7%. Although the other laboratory values are normal, these do not indicate the effectiveness of insulin therapy.
Question 4 of 5
The 9-year-old with SLE is receiving large doses of prednisolone. Which laboratory finding should the nurse recognize as an untoward effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: The liver is not affected by prednisolone use, so an increased total bilirubin of 4 mg/dL is not related to the use of the drug. Normal total bilirubin in a 9-year-old should be less than 2 mg/dL. B: A WBC count of 18,000/mm3 may indicate an infection, an untoward effect of prednisolone (Omnipred). Prednisolone, a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation, may increase the risk of infection. The normal WBC in a 9-year-old is 4500-11,100/mm3. C: Prednisolone has been associated with the adverse effect of hypokalemia, but not hyponatremia. Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L. D: Although corticosteroids may have the effect of increasing blood glucose, a random glucose of 130 mg/dL is not abnormal.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is reviewing information for the 6-month-old who is being given ranitidine. Which finding should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of ranitidine?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: An HR of 110 bpm is normal for a 6-month-old; the range is 80-170 bpm. B: Fever (temperature of 102.7°F) is not an adverse effect of ranitidine. C: Ranitidine is indicated for GERD; spitting up after feedings should improve. If not, then the medication dose may be too low or the medication itself ineffective. Spitting up is not a side effect. D: The nurse should identify that a hard, pebble-like bowel movement every 2 days demonstrates constipation; constipation is an adverse effect of ranitidine (Zantac).