NCLEX-PN
Maternity NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The laboring client is experiencing problems, and the nurse is concerned about possible side effects from the epidural anesthetic just administered. Which problems should the nurse attribute to the epidural anesthetic? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A,C,D,E
Rationale: Breakthrough pain can occur when the continuous infusion rate of the anesthetic agent is below the recommended rate for a therapeutic dose. Breakthrough pain can also occur when the client has a full bladder or when the cervix is completely dilated. A spinal headache can be a complication of epidural anesthesia and occurs when the dura is accidently punctured during epidural placement. A sensory level of T10 is usually maintained during epidural anesthesia; most women are unable to feel a full bladder or to void after receiving an epidural anesthetic. Maternal temperature may be elevated to 100.1°F (37.8°
C) or higher with an epidural. Sympathetic blockade may decrease sweat production and diminish heat loss. Hypertension is a contraindication for epidural anesthesia. A major side effect of epidural anesthesia is hypotension (not hypertension) caused by a spinal blockade, which lowers peripheral resistance, decreases venous return to the heart, and subsequently lessens cardiac output and lowers BP.
Question 2 of 5
The client at 32 weeks’ gestation presents to a hospital with a severe headache. Her admission BP is 184/104 mm Hg. Based on the assessment and findings of the serum laboratory report, which most severe complication warrants the nurse’s further assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: It is most important for the nurse to further assess for HELLP syndrome, a variation of pregnancy-induced hypertension characterized by hemolysis (elevated bilirubin), elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. The laboratory results do not show the serum creatinine level, so no inferences can be made about renal failure. Although liver enzymes are elevated, HELLP syndrome is a more severe complication associated with pregnancy. Preeclampsia commonly coexists with HELLP syndrome; however, these laboratory findings show worsening symptoms that are associated with HELLP syndrome.
Question 3 of 5
The pregnant client has an abnormal 1-hour glucose screen and completes a 3-hour, 100-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT). Which test results should the nurse interpret as being abnormal?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The fasting blood glucose of 104 mg/dL is abnormal for the OGTT; normal is 95 mg/dL or lower. A 1-hour OGTT value of 179 mg/dL is normal; normal is 180 mg/dL or lower. The 2-hour OGTT value of 146 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 155 mg/dL or higher. The 3-hour OGTT value of 129 mg/dL is normal; an abnormal value is 140 mg/dL or higher.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse explains that, in addition to increased blood volume, which other condition causes varicose veins during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Impaired venous return, due to the uterus compressing veins, causes varicose veins, compounded by increased blood volume.
Question 5 of 5
Two hours after the client’s vaginal delivery, she reports feeling “several large, warm gushes of fluid” from her vagina. The nurse assesses the client’s perineum and finds a large pool of blood on the client’s bed. Which nursing action is priority?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A full bladder may displace the uterus, causing increased bleeding. However, a more complete assessment must be performed prior to getting the client out of bed to prevent increased bleeding and syncope. Vigorously massaging the uterus may result in inversion of the uterus. The client should not simply be reassured that heavy bleeding is expected because further assessment is necessary before concluding that the client’s blood loss is WNL. The nurse’s first action should be to support the lower uterine segment and to assess the fundus. Increased bleeding will occur if soft or “boggy.” Failing to support the lower uterine segment may result in inversion of the uterus.