NCLEX Pharmacology Cheat Sheet | Nurselytic

Questions 34

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NCLEX Pharmacology Cheat Sheet Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The female client diagnosed with herpes simplex 2 is prescribed valacyclovir (Valtrex), an antiviral. Which information should the nurse discuss with the client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Valacyclovir reduces symptoms but does not prevent HSV-2 transmission; education is key. Pregnancy risks, no side effects, or liver tests are inaccurate.

Question 2 of 5

The client diagnosed with bipolar disorder has been taking valproic acid (Depakote), an anticonvulsant, for four (4) months. Which assessment data would warrant the medication being discontinued?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Yellow eyes suggest hepatotoxicity, a serious valproic acid side effect, warranting discontinuation. Mood swings, hypertension, or normal levels are less critical.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who has been treated with quetiapine (Seroquel) for 1 month. Today the client is increasingly agitated and complains of muscle stiffness. Which of these findings should be reported to the health care provider?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Elevated temperature and sweating. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a rare disorder that can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic medications. It is characterized by muscular rigidity, tachycardia, hyperthermia, sweating, altered consciousness, autonomic dysfunction, and increase in CPK. This is a life-threatening complication.

Question 4 of 5

While providing home care to a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse is asked how long diuretics must be taken. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The medication must be continued so the fluid problem is controlled.' This is the most therapeutic response and gives the client accurate information.

Question 5 of 5

The client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which health-care provider order should the nurse anticipate in treating this condition?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Pernicious anemia results from B12 deficiency; IM B12 is standard treatment due to absorption issues. Iron, folic acid, or thiamine do not address the primary cause.

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