NCLEX-PN
Hematology NCLEX Practice Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client receiving hospice care has cancer pain and requires treatment with a co-analgesic for pain control. Which medication should the nurse request an HCP to prescribe because it gives the best pain-relieving response when given with opioids?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Promethazine (Phenergan) is given with pain medications, but it treats nausea and vomiting, not pain. Gabapentin (Neurontin) is often administered with opioid pain medications because of its efficacy in relieving neuropathic pain and its limited adverse effects. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is not a co-analgesic but an antihistamine. Droperidol (Inapsine) is not a co-analgesic but an antiemetic to control nausea and vomiting.
Question 2 of 5
The client is hospitalized with a diagnosis of sickle cell crisis. Which findings should prompt the nurse to consider that the client is ready for discharge?
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: leukocyte count of 7500/mm3 is within normal range (5000 to 10,000/mm3 indicates the absence of an infection). B. Keeping warm and avoiding chills will help to prevent infection. Cold causes vasoconstriction, slowing blood flow and aggravating the Sickling process. C. Acute pain is due to tissue hypoxia from the agglutination of sickled cells within blood vessels. D. The absence of symptoms of complication such as acute chest syndrome and pulmonary hypertension indicates readiness for discharge. E. RBC transfusions may help to prevent complications, but transfusions do not alter the person’s body from producing the deformed erythrocytes. F. Hydroxyurea (Hydrea) can decrease the permanent formation of sickled cells. A side effect (not therapeutic effect) of hydroxyurea is suppression of leukocyte formation.
Question 3 of 5
A toddler is diagnosed with sickle cell anemia. Her mother is four months pregnant with her second child. The mother asks if there is any chance the new baby will have sickle cell anemia. She says that neither she nor her husband has sickle cell anemia. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sickle cell anemia is autosomal recessive. If both parents are carriers (trait), there is a 25% chance each child will have the disease.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse writes a client problem of 'activity intolerance' for a client diagnosed with anemia. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pacing activities (
A) conserves energy in anemia-related activity intolerance. Supplements (
B) and transfusions (
C) are medical, and vitals (
D) are routine, not primary.
Question 5 of 5
The client diagnosed with anemia is admitted to the emergency department with dyspnea, cool pale skin, and diaphoresis. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypotension (
A) indicate severe anemia with hypoxia, requiring immediate action. Allergies (
B), chemo history (
C), and normal ABGs (
D) are secondary.