NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is placed on lorazepam for short-term treatment of anxiety. Which instruction by the nurse is most important with lorazepam use?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine anxiolytic and sedative-hypnotic medication. If it is less effective after a few weeks, the client may be developing a tolerance to lorazepam, and the HCP should be notified of this.
Question 2 of 5
The 3-year-old with LTB is receiving aerosolized racemic epinephrine. Which assessment finding should the nurse recognize as indicating that the treatment is having an adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: Tachycardia is an adverse effect of racemic epinephrine (AsthmaNefrin). B: Hypertension, not hypotension, is an adverse effect of racemic epinephrine; a BP of 60/40 mm Hg in a 3-year-old indicates hypotension. C: A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/min is normal for a 3-year-old. D: A pulse oximetry reading of 90% is concerning and may indicate the need for supplemental oxygen, but it is not an adverse effect from the medication.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is assessing the laboratory test results for the male client receiving testosterone replacement therapy for treatment of hypogonadism. Which laboratory test result is most important for the nurse to review?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: The most important test is the fasting lipid profile because testosterone can lower plasma levels of HDLs and elevate plasma levels of LDLs, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis. B: Testosterone has little effect on PTT. C: Testosterone has little effect on urine. D: Testosterone has little effect on serum potassium.
Question 4 of 5
The adolescent, who is receiving morphine sulfate via PCA, has itching. Which medication listed on the client's MAR should the nurse plan to administer to relieve the itching?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Diazepam (Valium) acts on the CNS to produce sedation, hypnosis, skeletal muscle relaxation, and anticonvulsant activity. B: Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine that blocks histamine release by competing for the histamine receptors. C: Naloxone (Narcan) is a narcotic antagonist that reverses the effects of opiates. D: Butenafine (Mentax) is an antifungal antibiotic used to treat tinea pedis, tinea corporis, and tinea cruris.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is least appropriate when caring for a stable postpartum client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A family assessment is more appropriate after the client(s) have been discharged from the hospital. In the immediate postpartum stage, the nurse should provide perineal care, monitor for bleeding, and assess the location and height of the fundus.