NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The 9-year-old with SLE is receiving large doses of prednisolone. Which laboratory finding should the nurse recognize as an untoward effect of the medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: The liver is not affected by prednisolone use, so an increased total bilirubin of 4 mg/dL is not related to the use of the drug. Normal total bilirubin in a 9-year-old should be less than 2 mg/dL. B: A WBC count of 18,000/mm3 may indicate an infection, an untoward effect of prednisolone (Omnipred). Prednisolone, a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation, may increase the risk of infection. The normal WBC in a 9-year-old is 4500-11,100/mm3. C: Prednisolone has been associated with the adverse effect of hypokalemia, but not hyponatremia. Normal serum sodium is 135-145 mEq/L. D: Although corticosteroids may have the effect of increasing blood glucose, a random glucose of 130 mg/dL is not abnormal.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is an inappropriate item to include in planning care for a severely neutropenic client?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Granulocyte transfusion is not indicated to prevent infection. Produced in the bone marrow, granulocytes normally comprise 70% of all WBCs. They are subdivided into three types based on staining properties: neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils. They can be beneficial in a selected population of infected, severely granulocytopenic clients (less than 500/mm3) who do not respond to antibiotic therapy and who are expected to experience prolonged suppression of granulocyte production.
Question 3 of 5
Since taking the antidepressant doxepin, the female client has been reporting a decrease in sexual desire. She tells the nurse she “just isn't that interested†because she “just doesn't enjoy sex anymore.†She and her partner agree that they miss the excitement they used to share. Which is the most helpful response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most therapeutic response is to ask the client how she feels about contacting the HCP; switching to another antidepressant may be necessary if sexual dysfunction side effects become intolerable.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse completes teaching with the client who will be taking daily doses of disulfiram following treatment for alcoholism. Which client statement indicates correct understanding of the safe use of disulfiram?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The client should avoid alcohol-containing substances (e.g., cough preparations, extracts) to prevent severe adverse reactions with disulfiram (Antabuse).
Question 5 of 5
The client has an order for 0.45 mg Diltiazem. The medication vial has a concentration of 3 mg/mL. How many mL of the drug should be administered?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct calculation is 0.45 / 3 which equals 0.15 mL.