NCLEX-PN
MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client is beginning treatment with bupropion for depression. After meeting with the HCP, the client tells the nurse, “I'm also taking Zyban to help me stop smoking.†Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bupropion (Zyban) should not be used for multiple conditions simultaneously due to the risk of seizures from additive doses.
Question 2 of 5
The LPN is taking care of a client with a documented allergy to Penicillin. After rounds, the PN notices that the client has an order for Cefazolin. Which of the following actions would be the least appropriate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The LPN should clarify the order with the care team prior to determining the medication should not be given. Even though the client may have a potential reaction due to the Penicillin allergy, the therapeutic benefits of the antibiotic may outweigh the allergic reaction.
Question 3 of 5
The 40-year-old client is receiving levothyroxine for treatment of hypothyroidism. Which serum laboratory results should lead the nurse to conclude that the client's dose is adequate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Cortisol levels are used to evaluate adrenal and not thyroid function. B: Restoration of normal laboratory values for TSH and free T4 indicates that the dose of levothyroxine (Synthroid) is therapeutic. C: T3 is used to evaluate the effectiveness of liothyronine and propylthiouracil, used in the treatment of thyroid disorders. D: The WBC count is used to determine if the client has an infection. Evaluation of serum glucose and potassium levels is unrelated to the use of levothyroxine.
Question 4 of 5
The client is beginning treatment with bupropion for depression. After meeting with the HCP, the client tells the nurse, “I'm also taking Zyban to help me stop smoking.†Which is the most appropriate action for the nurse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bupropion (Zyban) should not be used for multiple conditions simultaneously due to the risk of seizures from additive doses.
Question 5 of 5
The 4-year-old with meningitis is to receive ceftriaxone 750 mg IVPB over 30 minutes. The pharmacy provided 750 mg in 50 mL D5W to be infused IVPB through a microdrip infusion system (tubing drop factor 60 gtt/min). At what rate, in gtt per min, should the nurse program the IVPB pump?
Correct Answer: 100
Rationale: Volume to be infused is 50 mL over 30 minutes. Calculate mL/min: 50 mL/ 30 min = 1.6667 mL/min. Convert to gtt/min using the drop factor: 1.6667 mL/min x 60 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min.