NCLEX-PN
MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
Which of the following is not a nursing responsibility when preparing the client for central line insertion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nursing responsibilities include explaining the procedure to the client, ensuring necessary consents are signed according to the facility policy, and maintaining sterile technique when preparing the equipment and supplies. The guidewire will be advanced by the practitioner inserting the central line.
Question 2 of 5
Melissa Smith came to the Emergency Department in the last week before her estimated date of confinement complaining of headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting. Suspecting PIH, the nurse should best respond to Melissa's complaints with which of the following statements?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH) symptoms like headaches, blurred vision, and vomiting suggest preeclampsia, which is best managed with bed rest at home unless severe, requiring hospitalization.
Question 3 of 5
The child is to start on medication therapy for enuresis that has not resolved with behavioral interventions. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for the child?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine used to treat anxiety. A side effect is drowsiness, which could impair a child's ability to waken for voiding. B: Desmopressin (DDAVP) is an analog of arginine vasopressin, which acts as an antidiuretic. It promotes resorption of water in the renal tubule or decreases bladder filling. C: Nitrofurantoin (Macrobid) is a urinary tract antiseptic used to treat UTIs and would not be used with enuresis. D: Spironolactone (Aldactone) is a potassium-sparing diuretic that would promote, not inhibit, diuresis.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is preparing to administer morphine sulfate IV to the child in severe pain. The child has an IV infusion of D5W at 50 mL/hr through a PICC. Which intervention is best when administering the medication?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: Unnecessary IV disconnections increase the risk for infection. Morphine sulfate is compatible with D5W. B: Morphine sulfate can be administered into a PICC access device. C: Administering undiluted morphine sulfate to a child increases the risk of adverse effects. D: The nurse should dilute the morphine sulfate before administration to prevent too-rapid administration and adverse effects. A single dose should be given over 4 to 5 minutes.
Question 5 of 5
The 4-year-old with meningitis is to receive ceftriaxone 750 mg IVPB over 30 minutes. The pharmacy provided 750 mg in 50 mL D5W to be infused IVPB through a microdrip infusion system (tubing drop factor 60 gtt/min). At what rate, in gtt per min, should the nurse program the IVPB pump?
Correct Answer: 100
Rationale: Volume to be infused is 50 mL over 30 minutes. Calculate mL/min: 50 mL/ 30 min = 1.6667 mL/min. Convert to gtt/min using the drop factor: 1.6667 mL/min x 60 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min.