Questions 96

NCLEX-PN

NCLEX-PN Test Bank

MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions

Extract:


Question 1 of 5

The client has been on vancomycin for three days. Which of the following symptoms is least concerning?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Vancomycin can cause ototoxicity, and tinnitus, vertigo, and nausea are symptoms of this condition. Headache is not typically associated with vancomycin's side effects.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse is preparing an educational program on immunizations for parents of children 11 to 12 years of age. To ensure the information presented is accurate for this age group, which immunizations should the nurse plan to address?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A: Varicella vaccines are administered at 12 to 15 months, with the second dose at 4 to 6 years. B: The first dose of hepatitis A vaccine is administered before 1 year of age, with the second dose 6 months after the first dose. C: The recommended immunization schedule for children 11 to 12 years old includes a DTaP booster and meningococcal and haemophilus influenza vaccines. Others include HPV, PPSV, and hepatitis A series. D: MMR vaccines are administered at 12 to 15 months, with the second dose at 4 to 6 years. A hepatitis B vaccine is administered to all newborns prior to hospital discharge, with the second dose at 1 to 2 months and the third dose at 6 to 18 months.

Question 3 of 5

A pregnant client asks how she can prevent getting Group B Strep. What is the LPN's best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Group B Strep lives in the vagina, rectum, and intestines of about 25% of the female population. It is considered normal flora and is not a sexually transmitted disease. The same woman can test positive in one pregnancy and negative in another, which is why testing is done every pregnancy, usually within 5 weeks of expected delivery. If a woman tests positive for Group B Strep, she will be given antibiotics during delivery to greatly reduce the risk of complications for her and her baby.

Question 4 of 5

The client with CRF is receiving epoetin alfa. Which finding should indicate to the nurse that the action of the medication has been effective?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A: Epoetin alfa does not have an effect on urine output or BP. B: Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis, or the production of RBCs. It is used in treating anemias associated with decreased RBC production, such as in renal failure. Hgb and Hct are used to evaluate the medication's effectiveness. The target Hgb for the client with CRF is 12 g/dL. C: Epoetin alfa does not have an effect on BP or HR. D: The client may report increased energy and less fatigue because of the increased Hgb levels, but these findings are not used to evaluate the medication's action.

Question 5 of 5

The initial treatment regimen of isoniazid, rifampin, and ethambutol is prescribed for the adolescent who has a positive tuberculin skin test. The client confides that she thinks she may be pregnant and asks if she should be taking these medications. Which rationale should be the basis for the nurse's response?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A: The medications do not cross the placental barrier, so treatment should not be withheld. B: Administering antituberculosis medications would not be an indication for termination of pregnancy because the medications are safe during pregnancy. C: The risk of hepatitis is slightly increased with the use of antituberculosis medications in pregnant women; however, the benefits of treatment strongly outweigh postponement of treatment. D: Infants born to women with untreated TB may be of lower birth weight, but rarely would the infant acquire congenital TB. Isoniazid (Nydrazid), rifampin (Rifadin), and ethambutol (Myambutol) are all considered safe for use in pregnancy.

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