NCLEX-PN
MSC NCLEX Physiological Integrity Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is educating the client concerning the possible side effects of a newly prescribed traditional antipsychotic medication. Which client statement reflects a need for further education regarding the side effects of this classification of medication?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Drowsiness, not insomnia, is a common side effect of traditional antipsychotics, indicating a need for further teaching.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a group of clients all in need of pain medication. The nurse has determined the most appropriate pain medication for each client based on the client's level of pain. Prioritize the order that the nurse should plan to administer the pain medications, beginning with the most potent analgesic for the client with the most severe pain.
Order the Items
Source Container
Correct Answer: B,D,C,A,E
Rationale: B: Fentanyl 0.1 mg IV bolus per PCA. Fentanyl (Sublimaze), the most potent of the medications, is an opioid narcotic analgesic that binds to opiate receptors in the CNS, altering the response to and perception of pain. A dose of 0.1 to 0.2 mg is equivalent to 10 mg of morphine sulfate. D: Morphine sulfate 4 mg IV. Morphine sulfate is also an opioid analgesic. This dose is IV and would be fast-acting. C: Hydromorphone 5 mg oral. Hydromorphone (Dilaudid), another opioid analgesic, would be next in priority. The oral dosing of this medication would indicate that the client's pain is less severe than the client receiving fentanyl or morphine sulfate. Hydromorphone 7.5 mg oral is an equianalgesic dose to 30 mg of oral morphine or 10 mg parenteral morphine. A: Ketorolac 10 mg oral. Ketorolac (
Toradol) is an NSAID and nonopioid analgesic that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, producing peripherally mediated analgesia. E: Propoxyphene 65 mg oral. Propoxyphene (Darvon) should be given last. It binds to opiate receptors in the CNS but is used in treating mild to moderate pain. It has analgesic effects similar to acetaminophen's.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following is not a nursing responsibility when preparing the client for central line insertion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The nursing responsibilities include explaining the procedure to the client, ensuring necessary consents are signed according to the facility policy, and maintaining sterile technique when preparing the equipment and supplies. The guidewire will be advanced by the practitioner inserting the central line.
Question 4 of 5
The 40-year-old client is receiving levothyroxine for treatment of hypothyroidism. Which serum laboratory results should lead the nurse to conclude that the client's dose is adequate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A: Cortisol levels are used to evaluate adrenal and not thyroid function. B: Restoration of normal laboratory values for TSH and free T4 indicates that the dose of levothyroxine (Synthroid) is therapeutic. C: T3 is used to evaluate the effectiveness of liothyronine and propylthiouracil, used in the treatment of thyroid disorders. D: The WBC count is used to determine if the client has an infection. Evaluation of serum glucose and potassium levels is unrelated to the use of levothyroxine.
Question 5 of 5
A child diagnosed with ADHD is to receive a total of 20 mg of dextroamphetamine daily in two divided doses. The dextroamphetamine on hand is supplied in 5-mg tablets. How many tablet(s) should the nurse administer for the morning dose?
Correct Answer: 2
Rationale: Calculation: 20 mg daily/ 2 doses = 10 mg per dose; 10 mg/ 5 mg/tablet = 2 tablets.