Respiratory NCLEX Questions | Nurselytic

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Respiratory NCLEX Questions Questions

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Question 1 of 5

The client had a right-sided chest tube inserted two (2) hours ago for a pneumothorax. Which action should the nurse implement if there is no fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal compartment?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: No tidaling suggests obstruction; checking for kinks/clots (
C) is the first step. CXR (
A), suction increase (
B), and SpO2 (
D) follow if unresolved.

Question 2 of 5

The nurse provides directions to the client on the proper use of a peak flow meter. Arrange the steps for the nurse's instruction to the client on the proper use of a peak flow meter in the correct sequence.

Order the Items

Source Container

Slide the marker to zero.
Take a deep breath.
Put the mouthpiece of the flow meter into your mouth.
Blow out as fast as you can.
Empty all of the air from your lungs.
Record the highest rating after the current sequence.

Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F

Rationale: The correct sequence is: 1. Slide the marker to zero, 2. Take a deep breath, 3. Put the mouthpiece in your mouth, 4. Blow out as fast as you can, 5. Empty all of the air from your lungs, 6. Record the highest rating.

Question 3 of 5

The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with ARDS. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer: A,C,D,E

Rationale: LOC assessment (
A), turning (
C), IV fluids (
D), and Fowler’s position (E) support ARDS care. Urine output (
B) should be monitored hourly, not per shift.

Question 4 of 5

The nurse is presenting a class on chest tubes. Which statement best describes a tension pneumothorax?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Tension pneumothorax traps air in the pleural space (
C), increasing pressure. Bleb rupture (
A) causes simple pneumothorax, free air movement (
B) is open pneumothorax, and central line (
D) is a cause, not definition.

Question 5 of 5

The nurse is preparing to administer the oral anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin) to a client who has a PT/PTT of 22/39 and an INR of 2.8. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: INR 2.8 (
C) is therapeutic for PE (2–3), so administer warfarin. Bleeding assessment (
A) is routine, vitamin K (
B) reverses overdose, and increasing dose (
D) is unnecessary.

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