NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Pharmacology Cheat Sheet Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client diagnosed with bipolar disorder has been taking valproic acid (Depakote), an anticonvulsant, for four (4) months. Which assessment data would warrant the medication being discontinued?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Yellow eyes suggest hepatotoxicity, a serious valproic acid side effect, warranting discontinuation. Mood swings, hypertension, or normal levels are less critical.
Question 2 of 5
Prior to administering Alteplase (TPA) to a client admitted for a cerebral vascular accident (CVA), it is critical that the nurse assess:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: PT/PTT. TPA is a potent thrombolytic enzyme. Because bleeding is the most common side effect, it is most essential to evaluate clotting studies including PT, PTT, APTT, platelets, and hematocrit before beginning therapy.
Question 3 of 5
An adult client had an abdominal hysterectomy this morning. Meperidine HCl (Demerol) 75 mg IM q3-4h PRN for pain is ordered. At 9:00 P.M., she complains of lower abdominal pain. She was last medicated at 5:45 P.M. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The last dose was over 3 hours ago, within the PRN order. Administering meperidine is appropriate for pain relief.
Question 4 of 5
The elderly client is admitted to the emergency department from a long-term care facility. The client has multiple ecchymotic areas on the body. The client is receiving digoxin, a cardiac glycoside; Lasix, a loop diuretic; Coumadin, an anticoagulant; and Xanax, an antianxiety medication. Which order should the nurse request from the health-care provider?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Ecchymosis with Coumadin suggests bleeding risk; STAT INR assesses anticoagulation status, guiding reversal if needed. Potassium, admission, or Valium are less urgent.
Question 5 of 5
The client is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. Which health-care provider order should the nurse anticipate in treating this condition?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pernicious anemia results from B12 deficiency; IM B12 is standard treatment due to absorption issues. Iron, folic acid, or thiamine do not address the primary cause.