NCLEX-PN
NCLEX Neurological Disorders Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
The client comes to the clinic for treatment of a dog bite. Which intervention should the clinic nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Determining the animal’s vaccination status (
D) is the first step to assess rabies risk, guiding further interventions. Rabies injections (
A) are premature, animal control (
B) is secondary, and tetanus (
C) follows risk assessment.
Question 2 of 5
The male client is sitting in the chair and his entire body is rigid with his arms and legs contracting and relaxing. The client is not aware of what is going on and is making guttural sounds. Which action should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the priority is safety. Easing the client to the floor (
D) prevents injury from falling. Clearing furniture (
A) follows, placing on the side (
B) is done after the client is safe, and vital signs (
C) are assessed post-seizure.
Question 3 of 5
The client is reporting neck pain, fever, and a headache. The nurse elicits a positive Kernig's sign. Which diagnostic test procedure should the nurse anticipate the HCP ordering to confirm a diagnosis?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Neck pain, fever, headache, and positive Kernig’s sign suggest meningitis. A lumbar puncture (
D) confirms the diagnosis via CSF analysis. CT (
A) may precede LP, blood cultures (
B) are supportive, and EMG (
C) is unrelated.
Question 4 of 5
After receiving report, the nurse working on the step-down neurological unit begins care for four clients. Prioritize the order in which the nurse should assess the four clients.
Order the Items
Source Container
Correct Answer: C,A,B,D
Rationale: The 24-year-old who had been unconscious at the scene of an MVA and is being admitted from the ED for observation. The nurse should assess the newly admitted client first to determine whether there are changes in level of consciousness and any early signs of increased ICP. The 78-year-old who underwent evacuation of a chronic subdural hematoma 24 hours earlier and is recovering. This client should be assessed next because the client is postoperative day 1, but stable. The 30-year-old who was diagnosed with viral meningitis 2 days earlier and wants to talk with the HCP. This client has a self-limiting condition and likely wants to be discharged; thus, he or she should be assessed third. The 40-year-old with Guillain-Barré who is currently receiving a third bedside plasmapheresis treatment being administered by another nurse. This client can be assessed last because another nurse is in the room with the client administering the plasmapheresis treatment.
Question 5 of 5
On the basis of the factors that cause the client to experience paroxysmal pain, which intervention is most appropriate to include in this client's care plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Avoiding facial touch minimizes triggering paroxysmal pain in trigeminal neuralgia, which is sensitive to tactile stimuli.