NCLEX-PN
Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies NCLEX Questions Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
A client with stress incontinence should be advised:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Kegel exercises, tightening and releasing the pelvic floor muscles, might improve stress incontinence.
Choice A is not an appropriate treatment for stress incontinence. Several effective surgical treatments exist. Lifestyle and dietary modifications can also be helpful.
Question 2 of 5
The LPN is about to give 100 mg Lopressor (metoprolol) to a client. Before administering the drug, he takes the patient's vitals, which are as follows: Pulse: 58, Blood Pressure: 90/62, Respirations: 18/minute. What action should the LPN take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Lopressor is given to treat hypertension, and a pulse of 58 and a blood pressure of 90/62 are considered low.
To prevent the client from bottoming out, the drug should be held and the findings reported to the RN, who should consult with the attending physician. LPNs should never adjust client dosing, as that is outside of their scope of practice.
Question 3 of 5
The client who is to receive a scheduled dose of digoxin has an irregular apical pulse at 92 bpm and a serum potassium of 3.9 mEq/L. Which nursing documentation reflects the most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: A normal serum potassium level is 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L. Digoxin (Lanoxin), a cardiac glycoside, slows and strengthens the heart. It is used for rate control in clients with atrial fibrillation, which often produces an irregular rhythm. B: Dysrhythmias can occur if digoxin is given when the serum potassium level is low, but the serum potassium level is WNL. Digoxin is used for rate control and would not be withheld due to an irregular HR. C: Although it is important to monitor for digoxin toxicity, the serum potassium level is WNL. D: Withholding digoxin and notifying the HCP are unnecessary; the serum potassium is WNL.
Question 4 of 5
The 3-year-old with LTB is receiving aerosolized racemic epinephrine. Which assessment finding should the nurse recognize as indicating that the treatment is having an adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A: Tachycardia is an adverse effect of racemic epinephrine (AsthmaNefrin). B: Hypertension, not hypotension, is an adverse effect of racemic epinephrine; a BP of 60/40 mm Hg in a 3-year-old indicates hypotension. C: A respiratory rate of 25 breaths/min is normal for a 3-year-old. D: A pulse oximetry reading of 90% is concerning and may indicate the need for supplemental oxygen, but it is not an adverse effect from the medication.
Question 5 of 5
The new nurse asks the experienced nurse why the first dose of the MMR vaccine is normally given at 12 to 15 months of age and not earlier, except with international travel. Which explanation by the experienced nurse is correct?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A: The second dose of the MMR vaccine can be given earlier, provided that at least 4 weeks has elapsed since the first dose. However, a second dose is usually not given earlier because sufficient immunity is usually present. B: The chance of developing only measles is greater if the vaccine is given at a younger age because the vaccine may neutralize the passive antibodies. C: The MMR provides active (not passive) immunity. D: Because the MMR vaccine is a live virus, a person develops a mild form of the diseases after administration, stimulating the body to develop immunity. The passively acquired antibodies to measles can interfere with the child's immune response to the vaccine, and no immunity may result.